1Z0-590 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 1Z0-590
Exam name : Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials
What is the purpose of the use “command” In the CLI?
A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool
argument.
B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual
machine argument.
C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name
argument.
D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server
argument.
E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group
argument.
Answer: A
What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover
process?
A. OCFS2
B. Server Pool Master
C. Oracle Clusterware
D. utility server
E. virtual machine server
Answer: C
A low priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the
two valid network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Answer: B,C
What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Answer: A,E
Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands
can help troubleshoot the networking?
A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can
be used to see which bridge is having problems.
B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having
problems.
C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This
canthen be used to determine which bridge is having problems.
D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see
which are having problems.
E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help
determine which bridge is having problems.
Answer: D
What is the effect of running a server pool restores?
A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database
Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers is used to
restock the database.
B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in
the database is removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.
C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be
deleted, and will be synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager
database. The server pool master is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM
servers' agent databases.
D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which
responds with the current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to
restore the data in the Oracle VM database.
Answer: C
Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?
A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template
B. JeOS license file
C. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
D. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System.img
E. Template reconfiguration scripts
F. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
Linux command is available to customize the JeOS images and for creating the template
you will get a script which will allow to create the template so that template reconfiguration
scripts will be the right answer and a license file should be there. So the correct 3 options I
specified there.
Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?
A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is
included at no charge.
B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM
Manager is included at no charge.
C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM
Manager license and support contract is purchased for each server.
D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM
Manager license and support contract is purchased for one server.
E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager
support is purchased for one server.
Answer: B
Friday, August 29, 2014
Cisco 700-280 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 700-280 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 700-280
Exam Name : Email Security for Field Engineers
QUESTION 1
By default, how do Outbreak filters avoid quarantining false positives?
A. False positives do not occur as the Anti-Virus engine will check the signature against the incoming mail.
Only positive matches against the signature are quarantined for checking later on.
B. False positives are released as updates provide a better description of suspected attachment.
C. Positive matches are not quarantined. They are dropped.
D. All false positives must be quarantined until a Virus signature is received so that they can be checked.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following two RAT entries will accept mail for example.com and all of its sub- domains? (Choose
two.)
A. *@example.com
B. .example.com
C. example.com
D. *@*.example.com
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
A new C-160 has been delivered and needs to be configured. What subnet and C-Series interface does your
laptop need to be configured on?
A. Data1192.168.10.0/24
B. Data 2192.168.10.0/24
C. Data2192.168.42.0/24
D. Data1192.168.42.0/24
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which command is used to enable weighted filtering in an Email Security Appliance?
A. policyconfig
B. dictionaryconfig
C. filters
D. weightedconfig
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which option describes when a DLP incident occurs?
A. when potentially sensitive content appears in a message
B. when one or more users receive classified information via email
C. when a system administrator fails to enable the DLP feature key
D. if a message contains a number that looks like a credit card number
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which option correctly describes the encryption technologies that should be used with "TLS Preferred"
Guaranteed Secure Delivery?
A. Try to use TLS. If it fails, use envelope encryption.
B. Try envelope encryption first. If it fails, use TLS.
C. Always use envelope encryption.
D. Always use TLS. If TLS fails, bounce the message.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the Add Condition menu which of listed file attachments will be matched?
(Choose two.)
A. A .msi attachment that has had its file extension changed to .pdf
B. A .pdf attachment that has had its file extension changed to .exe.
C. A.pdf attachment
D. A .exe attachment.
Correct Answer: BD
Exam code : 700-280
Exam Name : Email Security for Field Engineers
QUESTION 1
By default, how do Outbreak filters avoid quarantining false positives?
A. False positives do not occur as the Anti-Virus engine will check the signature against the incoming mail.
Only positive matches against the signature are quarantined for checking later on.
B. False positives are released as updates provide a better description of suspected attachment.
C. Positive matches are not quarantined. They are dropped.
D. All false positives must be quarantined until a Virus signature is received so that they can be checked.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following two RAT entries will accept mail for example.com and all of its sub- domains? (Choose
two.)
A. *@example.com
B. .example.com
C. example.com
D. *@*.example.com
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
A new C-160 has been delivered and needs to be configured. What subnet and C-Series interface does your
laptop need to be configured on?
A. Data1192.168.10.0/24
B. Data 2192.168.10.0/24
C. Data2192.168.42.0/24
D. Data1192.168.42.0/24
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which command is used to enable weighted filtering in an Email Security Appliance?
A. policyconfig
B. dictionaryconfig
C. filters
D. weightedconfig
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which option describes when a DLP incident occurs?
A. when potentially sensitive content appears in a message
B. when one or more users receive classified information via email
C. when a system administrator fails to enable the DLP feature key
D. if a message contains a number that looks like a credit card number
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which option correctly describes the encryption technologies that should be used with "TLS Preferred"
Guaranteed Secure Delivery?
A. Try to use TLS. If it fails, use envelope encryption.
B. Try envelope encryption first. If it fails, use TLS.
C. Always use envelope encryption.
D. Always use TLS. If TLS fails, bounce the message.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the Add Condition menu which of listed file attachments will be matched?
(Choose two.)
A. A .msi attachment that has had its file extension changed to .pdf
B. A .pdf attachment that has had its file extension changed to .exe.
C. A.pdf attachment
D. A .exe attachment.
Correct Answer: BD
Cisco 010-151 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 010-151 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 010-151
Exam name : Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center
QUESTION NO: 1
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IPbased
storage devices, hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel
SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access
the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire
transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an
unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic
interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with
higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable
(QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair
variation.
Answer: A,C
Exam code : 010-151
Exam name : Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center
QUESTION NO: 1
Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IPbased
storage devices, hosts, and clients?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel
SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access
the same storage devices across the SAN?
A. recovery
B. redundancy
C. resiliency
D. security
E. storage
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire
transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an
unlimited amount of storage devices?
A. any-to-many
B. many-to-any
C. any-to-any
D. any-to-one
E. one-to-any
F. one-to-one
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic
interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with
higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable
(QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair
variation.
Answer: A,C
Cisco 820-421 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 820-421 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 820-421
Exam name : Applying Cisco Specialized Business Value Analysis
QUESTION NO: 1
When establishing a current view of your customer, which is an appropriate internal source of
information?
A. Financial analyst forecasts of the company's revenue for the next 3 years
B. Working documents created by new hires prior to their joining your organization
C. Websites of partners in the customer's ecosystem
D. Service level agreements your firm helped to create, between the customer IT group and
business units
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which customer-provided sources would give you insight into a public company's recent financial
condition?
A. A news article about a private company rumored to be an acquisition candidate for the
customer
B. Quarterly filings with the country financial securities government authority
C. General market trends in an industry in which the customer participates
D. An 18-month old brochure that describes the company's history
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Why would an investment analyst report be a good source of company information?
A. It may give you an inside track on internal management relationships
B. You will find company-endorsed estimates of product level sales growth
C. It can complement company-published data and give you insight for discovery
D. This will report the customer's actual IT expenditures for hardware, software, services
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which tool or document should you use to help identify high level gaps in knowledge about your
customer's overall strategy and operating model?
A. Business Model Canvas
B. An account coverage plan for your team's territory
C. Communications plan rollout of a new application
D. A win/loss review from a proposal delivered to the customer 12 months ago
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which option will establish credibility with a customer executive?
A. Ask informational questions about industry trends
B. Talk a lot about your products new features
C. Describe the benefits of Cisco's approach to customer support
D. Demonstrate awareness and interest in the company's priorities and published financials
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which is a benefit from establishing credibility with multiple customer stakeholders?
A. You increase the odds of gaining an advocate for the largest cost alternative you can offer the
customer
B. This shows your #1 priority is to build friends and allies
C. You build a basis for gaining insight into a range of customer viewpoints or priorities
D. You gain influence with the IT Executive, since they alone can help you displace a competitor
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the
enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with
inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Answer: A
Exam code : 820-421
Exam name : Applying Cisco Specialized Business Value Analysis
QUESTION NO: 1
When establishing a current view of your customer, which is an appropriate internal source of
information?
A. Financial analyst forecasts of the company's revenue for the next 3 years
B. Working documents created by new hires prior to their joining your organization
C. Websites of partners in the customer's ecosystem
D. Service level agreements your firm helped to create, between the customer IT group and
business units
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which customer-provided sources would give you insight into a public company's recent financial
condition?
A. A news article about a private company rumored to be an acquisition candidate for the
customer
B. Quarterly filings with the country financial securities government authority
C. General market trends in an industry in which the customer participates
D. An 18-month old brochure that describes the company's history
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Why would an investment analyst report be a good source of company information?
A. It may give you an inside track on internal management relationships
B. You will find company-endorsed estimates of product level sales growth
C. It can complement company-published data and give you insight for discovery
D. This will report the customer's actual IT expenditures for hardware, software, services
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which tool or document should you use to help identify high level gaps in knowledge about your
customer's overall strategy and operating model?
A. Business Model Canvas
B. An account coverage plan for your team's territory
C. Communications plan rollout of a new application
D. A win/loss review from a proposal delivered to the customer 12 months ago
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which option will establish credibility with a customer executive?
A. Ask informational questions about industry trends
B. Talk a lot about your products new features
C. Describe the benefits of Cisco's approach to customer support
D. Demonstrate awareness and interest in the company's priorities and published financials
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which is a benefit from establishing credibility with multiple customer stakeholders?
A. You increase the odds of gaining an advocate for the largest cost alternative you can offer the
customer
B. This shows your #1 priority is to build friends and allies
C. You build a basis for gaining insight into a range of customer viewpoints or priorities
D. You gain influence with the IT Executive, since they alone can help you displace a competitor
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the
enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with
inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Answer: A
Cisco 700-039 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 700-039 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 700-039
Exam name : Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer
QUESTION NO: 1
Which three statements are reasons why customers consider Cisco as their collaboration solutions
partner? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is built on open standards and stands for collaboration
interoperability.
B. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is exclusive to software rather than hardware solutions.
C. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is creatively designed with a single solution model that fits all
customer choices.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings
in the market.
E. Cisco is the market leader with the best-in-class telephony, conferencing, and video solutions.
F. The Cisco comprehensive and flexible collaboration portfolio is lowest-priced option when
compared to competitors
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and
vertical-oriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Once you define the customer's value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing
core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer's existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding
Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat.How secure is your
Collaboration application?
B. I'm concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems'?
D. I'm concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently
accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Answer: B,E
Exam code : 700-039
Exam name : Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Engineer
QUESTION NO: 1
Which three statements are reasons why customers consider Cisco as their collaboration solutions
partner? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is built on open standards and stands for collaboration
interoperability.
B. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is exclusive to software rather than hardware solutions.
C. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is creatively designed with a single solution model that fits all
customer choices.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings
in the market.
E. Cisco is the market leader with the best-in-class telephony, conferencing, and video solutions.
F. The Cisco comprehensive and flexible collaboration portfolio is lowest-priced option when
compared to competitors
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and
vertical-oriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Once you define the customer's value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing
core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer's existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding
Cisco Collaboration Architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat.How secure is your
Collaboration application?
B. I'm concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems'?
D. I'm concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently
accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Answer: B,E
Cisco 700-303 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 700-303 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 700-303
Exam name : Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Systems Engineer Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are correct about Cisco Validated Design or CVD? (Choose two)
A. CVD consists of systems and solutions that are designed tested and documented to facilitate
and improve customer deployments
B. CVD is a prescriptive, scalable, flexible design to quickly deploy a full-service network.
C. CVD gets the design working the first time by using validated configurations and topologies.
D. CVD implementations are mainly partner-led
E. CVD consists of three primary modular yet interdependent components
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which is a software feature available in Cisco IOS Software recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer?
A. Flow Metadata
B. Media Services Proxy
C. NBAR2
D. Mediatrace
Answer: B
Explanation:
Media Services Proxy (MSP) uses a variety of standard signaling protocols (Session Description
Protocol [SDP], Session Initiation Protocol [SIP], H.323, H.245, Real Time Streaming Protocol
[RTSP], multicast DNS [mDNS], etc.) to learn about the characteristics of endpoints and
applications from legacy systems, allowing sharing of flow attributes among network nodes and
allowing existing endpoints and applications to be augmented by the Cisco intelligent network
while the transition to "smart" endpoints is in progress.
MSP is a software feature available in Cisco IOS Software recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer. When endpoints establish audio and video calls, the MSP identifies
theendpoint attributes by sniffing the signaling and associating these attributes with the endpoint. It
then provides services on behalf of the endpoint; for instance, generation of metadata, that can be
used by downstream network nodes.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise/enterprisemedianet/
solution_overview_c22-654289.html
QUESTION NO: 3
In which wireless deployment mode is no wireless controller used?
A. Autonomous
B. FlexConnect
C. Centralized
D. Converged Access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Autonomous: This is a deployment mode in which no wireless controllers are used. It is
traditionally used in small customer deployments. Wireless access points provide RF
management, and they work directly with ISE and Prime infrastructure to meet policy and network
management requirements.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-seriesswitches/
white_paper_c11-726107.html
QUESTION NO: 4
Which feature of a Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network provides a consistent experience across
physical and virtual infrastructure, across branch. DC/HG. and cloud?
A. Optimal experience
B. Pervasive security
C. Simplified operations
D. Lower total cost of ownership
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which high availability design consideration produces savings by reducing the number of power
supplies required per switch and the number of outlets required in the wiring closet?
A. StackPower
B. Spanning VLANs
C. QoS
D. Gateway redundancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco StackPower technology immediately produces savings by reducing the number of power
supplies required per switch and the number of outlets required in the wiring closet.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-x-seriesswitches/
white_paper_c11-578931.html
QUESTION NO: 6
Which cloud connectors provide additional reliability through redundant, localized call processing
at the customer site during network outages?
A. Cisco Cloud Storage Connector
B. WebEx Cloud Connected Audio
C. Cisco Unified Border Element (Cisco UBE)
D. Cisco Unified SRST
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Unified SRST provides additional reliability through redundant, localized call processing at
the customer site during network outages.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/routers/3900-series-integratedservices-
routers-isr/white_paper_c11-706801.html
Exam code : 700-303
Exam name : Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Systems Engineer Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are correct about Cisco Validated Design or CVD? (Choose two)
A. CVD consists of systems and solutions that are designed tested and documented to facilitate
and improve customer deployments
B. CVD is a prescriptive, scalable, flexible design to quickly deploy a full-service network.
C. CVD gets the design working the first time by using validated configurations and topologies.
D. CVD implementations are mainly partner-led
E. CVD consists of three primary modular yet interdependent components
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which is a software feature available in Cisco IOS Software recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer?
A. Flow Metadata
B. Media Services Proxy
C. NBAR2
D. Mediatrace
Answer: B
Explanation:
Media Services Proxy (MSP) uses a variety of standard signaling protocols (Session Description
Protocol [SDP], Session Initiation Protocol [SIP], H.323, H.245, Real Time Streaming Protocol
[RTSP], multicast DNS [mDNS], etc.) to learn about the characteristics of endpoints and
applications from legacy systems, allowing sharing of flow attributes among network nodes and
allowing existing endpoints and applications to be augmented by the Cisco intelligent network
while the transition to "smart" endpoints is in progress.
MSP is a software feature available in Cisco IOS Software recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer. When endpoints establish audio and video calls, the MSP identifies
theendpoint attributes by sniffing the signaling and associating these attributes with the endpoint. It
then provides services on behalf of the endpoint; for instance, generation of metadata, that can be
used by downstream network nodes.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise/enterprisemedianet/
solution_overview_c22-654289.html
QUESTION NO: 3
In which wireless deployment mode is no wireless controller used?
A. Autonomous
B. FlexConnect
C. Centralized
D. Converged Access
Answer: A
Explanation:
Autonomous: This is a deployment mode in which no wireless controllers are used. It is
traditionally used in small customer deployments. Wireless access points provide RF
management, and they work directly with ISE and Prime infrastructure to meet policy and network
management requirements.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3850-seriesswitches/
white_paper_c11-726107.html
QUESTION NO: 4
Which feature of a Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network provides a consistent experience across
physical and virtual infrastructure, across branch. DC/HG. and cloud?
A. Optimal experience
B. Pervasive security
C. Simplified operations
D. Lower total cost of ownership
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which high availability design consideration produces savings by reducing the number of power
supplies required per switch and the number of outlets required in the wiring closet?
A. StackPower
B. Spanning VLANs
C. QoS
D. Gateway redundancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco StackPower technology immediately produces savings by reducing the number of power
supplies required per switch and the number of outlets required in the wiring closet.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-x-seriesswitches/
white_paper_c11-578931.html
QUESTION NO: 6
Which cloud connectors provide additional reliability through redundant, localized call processing
at the customer site during network outages?
A. Cisco Cloud Storage Connector
B. WebEx Cloud Connected Audio
C. Cisco Unified Border Element (Cisco UBE)
D. Cisco Unified SRST
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Unified SRST provides additional reliability through redundant, localized call processing at
the customer site during network outages.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/routers/3900-series-integratedservices-
routers-isr/white_paper_c11-706801.html
Cisco 700-302 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Cisco 700-302 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 700-302
Exam name : Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Field Engineer Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
Which application consideration is important for collaboration capabilities, including voice, video,
and instant messaging to users of mobile devices such as Android, Apple iOS smartphones, and
tablets?
A. Quality of service
B. Dual SSID design
C. Rate limiting
D. Single SSID design
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which feature that is available in Cisco IOS Software is recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer?
A. Mediatrace
B. NBAR2
C. Media Services Proxy
D. Flow Metadata
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement describes the cloud security feature of the Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network?
A. The Cloud Intelligent Network can be used to expand or scale up "on demand" in case of a
surge in network demand.
B. The Cloud Intelligent Network ensures that only authentic users and devices get access to
information based on their roles and responsibility in an organization
C. In Cloud Intelligent Network, you can manage a network in an easy manner through centralized
monitoring.
D. The Cloud Intelligent Network guarantees a better user experience by cutting down latency,
providing better application performance and optimization.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two statements about Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network are true? (Choose two.)
A. It enables users to access their home network from their enterprise network.
B. It provides single level service level agreements to customers.
C. It integrates the network with the unified data center delivering a powerful user experience.
D. It allows simplified management of the network through centralized monitoring.
E. It is extremely vulnerable to web-based malware.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In designing a BYOD solution, which implementation is based on extending traditional guest
wireless access and providing similar guest-like wireless access for employee personal devices?
A. Advanced
B. Basic
C. Limited
D. Enhanced
Answer: B
Explanation:
Exam code : 700-302
Exam name : Advanced Borderless Network Architecture Field Engineer Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
Which application consideration is important for collaboration capabilities, including voice, video,
and instant messaging to users of mobile devices such as Android, Apple iOS smartphones, and
tablets?
A. Quality of service
B. Dual SSID design
C. Rate limiting
D. Single SSID design
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which feature that is available in Cisco IOS Software is recommended to be positioned at the
network access layer?
A. Mediatrace
B. NBAR2
C. Media Services Proxy
D. Flow Metadata
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement describes the cloud security feature of the Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network?
A. The Cloud Intelligent Network can be used to expand or scale up "on demand" in case of a
surge in network demand.
B. The Cloud Intelligent Network ensures that only authentic users and devices get access to
information based on their roles and responsibility in an organization
C. In Cloud Intelligent Network, you can manage a network in an easy manner through centralized
monitoring.
D. The Cloud Intelligent Network guarantees a better user experience by cutting down latency,
providing better application performance and optimization.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two statements about Cisco Cloud Intelligent Network are true? (Choose two.)
A. It enables users to access their home network from their enterprise network.
B. It provides single level service level agreements to customers.
C. It integrates the network with the unified data center delivering a powerful user experience.
D. It allows simplified management of the network through centralized monitoring.
E. It is extremely vulnerable to web-based malware.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
In designing a BYOD solution, which implementation is based on extending traditional guest
wireless access and providing similar guest-like wireless access for employee personal devices?
A. Advanced
B. Basic
C. Limited
D. Enhanced
Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft 74-409 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft 74-409 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 74-409
Exam name : Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization. The organization uses all
components of System Center 2012 R2 in its production environment.
You need to configure the environment to support Performance and Resource Optimization
(PRO).
How should you configure the environment? To answer, drag the appropriate server role to
the correct location or locations. Each server role may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question No : 1 DRAG DROP
You plan to implement guest clustering.
You review the following information:
• Whoami results, as shown in the Whoami Command exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
• System information settings, as shown in the System Information Settings exhibit (Click
the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 2 HOTSPOT
• The Add Roles and Features Wizard, as shown in the Features Wizard exhibit (Click the
Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can implement guest clustering.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
You administer a Hyper-V environment that uses Windows Server 2012 R2 and System
Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
A line-of-business (LOB) application requires two virtual machines (VMs). Each VM must
have direct access to existing Fibre Channel storage.
You need to ensure that the two VMs have direct access to Fibre Channel storage.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Question No : 3 DRAG DROP
✑
✑
✑
Answer:
A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You need to create and assign a self-service user role in VMM.
You have the following requirements:
All role members must share ownership of all virtual machines (VMs) that any role
member creates,
Role members must be able to deploy VMs.
Role members must NOT have authoring rights.
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
A company has Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain controllers that run on
Windows Server 2012 R2 servers. There are two forests, and each has a single domain.
There is a two-way forest trust between the forests. The company uses Hyper-V for server
visualization. The Hyper-V environment contains the Hyper-V host servers as shown in the
following table:
Question No : 5
✑
✑
✑
✑
✑
✑
You prepare to deploy System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) to back up
the Hyper-V environment. The deployment must meet the following requirements:
ensure that all Hyper-V servers can be backed up by using DPM
Hyper-v hosts in the perimeter network must use certificate-based authentication
Hyper-V hosts in the internal network must use Kerberos authentication
minimize the total number of DPM servers
You need to deploy DPM to the environment.
What should you deploy?
A. four DPM servers in the internal network and two DPM servers in the perimeter network
B. two DPM servers in the internal network only
C. two DPM servers in the internal network and two DPM servers in the perimeter network
D. two DPM servers in the internal network and one DPM server in the per meter network
Answer: C
You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server that contains production
and test virtual machines (VMs). You plan to optimize the performance of the VMs.
The following settings must be applied to the VMs:
You must set a maximum value for the input/output operations per second (IOPS)
on the test VMs.
You must set a minimum value for the IOPS on the production VMs.
You need to configure the environment. What should you do?
A. On all VMs, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS).
B. Create a shared virtual hard disk (VHD).
C. On the Hyper-V host server, enable Resource Metering.
D. On all VMs, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS).
Answer: D
Question No : 6
Question No : 7 DRAG DROP
✑
You use System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage a Hyper-V
environment that consists of two host groups named Dev1 and Prod1. It also has two
private clouds named DevCloud and ProdCloud.
You have a self-service user role named DevVMAdmins. DevVMAdmins does NOT have
the rights to perform any actions. DevVMAdmins must have the ability to start virtual
machines (VMs), stop VMs, and shut down VMs. It must also be able to use resources
from other self-service users.
You need to configure the DevVMAdmins user role.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct locations in the cmdlet. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You have the following requirements:
Self-service users must be able to store and share their resources.
Question No : 8
✑ Self-service users must be able to use the resources to create profiles and
templates in VMM.
You need to configure VMM to support self-service users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct response presents part of the
solution.
A. In the VMM library share, create a user data path.
B. Grant the Read permission and the Write permission to all role members.
C. In the Public Documents share, create a user data path.
D. Assign the Deploy action to the role members.
E. Grant the Read & execute permission to all role members.
F. Assign the Author action to the role members.
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation: A (not C): VMM for System Center 2012 allows self-service users to use the
VMM console, and to see their logical and physical resources in the Library workspace.
* Self-service user data paths Configure user data paths on self-service user roles to
provide a place where members of a self-service user role can upload and share their own
resources. The user data path also is the best place for administrators to store resources
that only members of a self-service user role need to use.
B: (not E) Access control permissions determine whether the users have Read/Write or
Read/only access.
F (not D):
* Author
Grants members permission to author templates and profiles. Users with authoring rights
can create hardware profiles, operating system profiles, application profiles, SQL Server
profiles, virtual machine templates and service templates.
* Deploy
Grants members permission to deploy virtual machines and services from templates and
virtual hard disks that are assigned to their user role. However, they do not have the right to
author templates and profiles.
Question No : 9
You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment that includes System Center
2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The environment includes five physical servers.
The servers are configured as follows:
You plan to use VMM to migrate physical machines to virtual machines.
You need to reconfigure the hardware on the servers to support a physical to virtual offline
migration.
Which three servers should you reconfigure? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
A. NYC-DEV
B. NYC-WEB
C. NYC-PR
D. NYC-FS
E. NYC-EX
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation: The source computer cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB. This
disqualifies NYC-FS( not D) and NYC-EX (not E).
Note:
* Requirements on the Source Machine
To perform a P2V conversion, your source computer:
/Must have at least 512 MB of RAM.
/ Cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB.
/ Must have an Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) BIOS – Vista WinPE
will not install on a non-ACPI BIOS.
/ Must be accessible by VMM and by the host computer.
/ Cannot be in a perimeter network. A perimeter network, which is also known as a
screened subnet, is a collection of devices and subnets placed between an intranet and the
Internet to help protect the intranet from unauthorized Internet users. The source computer
for a P2V conversion can be in any other network topology in which the VMM server can
connect to the source machine to temporarily install an agent and can make Windows
Management Instrumentation (WMI) calls to the source computer.
You administer a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The environment runs on a Windows
Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You use Systems Center 2012
R2 Operations Manager to troubleshoot performance issues.
Some users of dedicated virtual desktops report slow response times within their sessions.
Operations Manager reports indicate that a performance bottleneck exists at the storage
layer.
You need to manage the amount of input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the
dedicated desktop pool can generate.
What should you do?
A. Enable Resource Metering on the Hyper-V host server.
B. Configure Operations Manager to monitor virtual machine disk performance on the
Hyper-V host server. Configure monitoring alerts for virtual machine use greater than the
allowed IOPS.
C. For each virtual machine, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and
max mum value for the Mbps property.
D. For each virtual machine, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and
maximum value for IOPS.
Answer: C
A company has a Hyper-V failover cluster that consists of sixteen host servers that run
Windows Server 2012 R2. The company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM) to manage the Hyper-V environment.
Eight of the host servers are used only for engineering-related services. The other eight
host servers are used for general corporate use.
You need to ensure that the corporate virtual machines (VMs) are never moved to the host
servers that are used for engineering.
What should you do?
A. Create a new VMM availability set for the corporate VMs.
B. Create a custom property for the corporate VMs and host servers. Then, use a custom
placement rule for the host group. Specify that the rule must match.
C. In the corporate VMs, set the value of the Preferred Owners setting to the names of the
corporate host servers.
D. Create a new VMM availability set for the corporate host servers.
Answer: B
Exam code : 74-409
Exam name : Server Virtualization with Windows Server Hyper-V and System Center
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization. The organization uses all
components of System Center 2012 R2 in its production environment.
You need to configure the environment to support Performance and Resource Optimization
(PRO).
How should you configure the environment? To answer, drag the appropriate server role to
the correct location or locations. Each server role may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question No : 1 DRAG DROP
You plan to implement guest clustering.
You review the following information:
• Whoami results, as shown in the Whoami Command exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
• System information settings, as shown in the System Information Settings exhibit (Click
the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 2 HOTSPOT
• The Add Roles and Features Wizard, as shown in the Features Wizard exhibit (Click the
Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can implement guest clustering.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select
No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Answer:
You administer a Hyper-V environment that uses Windows Server 2012 R2 and System
Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
A line-of-business (LOB) application requires two virtual machines (VMs). Each VM must
have direct access to existing Fibre Channel storage.
You need to ensure that the two VMs have direct access to Fibre Channel storage.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Question No : 3 DRAG DROP
✑
✑
✑
Answer:
A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You need to create and assign a self-service user role in VMM.
You have the following requirements:
All role members must share ownership of all virtual machines (VMs) that any role
member creates,
Role members must be able to deploy VMs.
Role members must NOT have authoring rights.
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:
A company has Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain controllers that run on
Windows Server 2012 R2 servers. There are two forests, and each has a single domain.
There is a two-way forest trust between the forests. The company uses Hyper-V for server
visualization. The Hyper-V environment contains the Hyper-V host servers as shown in the
following table:
Question No : 5
✑
✑
✑
✑
✑
✑
You prepare to deploy System Center 2012 R2 Data Protection Manager (DPM) to back up
the Hyper-V environment. The deployment must meet the following requirements:
ensure that all Hyper-V servers can be backed up by using DPM
Hyper-v hosts in the perimeter network must use certificate-based authentication
Hyper-V hosts in the internal network must use Kerberos authentication
minimize the total number of DPM servers
You need to deploy DPM to the environment.
What should you deploy?
A. four DPM servers in the internal network and two DPM servers in the perimeter network
B. two DPM servers in the internal network only
C. two DPM servers in the internal network and two DPM servers in the perimeter network
D. two DPM servers in the internal network and one DPM server in the per meter network
Answer: C
You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server that contains production
and test virtual machines (VMs). You plan to optimize the performance of the VMs.
The following settings must be applied to the VMs:
You must set a maximum value for the input/output operations per second (IOPS)
on the test VMs.
You must set a minimum value for the IOPS on the production VMs.
You need to configure the environment. What should you do?
A. On all VMs, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS).
B. Create a shared virtual hard disk (VHD).
C. On the Hyper-V host server, enable Resource Metering.
D. On all VMs, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS).
Answer: D
Question No : 6
Question No : 7 DRAG DROP
✑
You use System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage a Hyper-V
environment that consists of two host groups named Dev1 and Prod1. It also has two
private clouds named DevCloud and ProdCloud.
You have a self-service user role named DevVMAdmins. DevVMAdmins does NOT have
the rights to perform any actions. DevVMAdmins must have the ability to start virtual
machines (VMs), stop VMs, and shut down VMs. It must also be able to use resources
from other self-service users.
You need to configure the DevVMAdmins user role.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segments to the correct locations in the cmdlet. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
A company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
You have the following requirements:
Self-service users must be able to store and share their resources.
Question No : 8
✑ Self-service users must be able to use the resources to create profiles and
templates in VMM.
You need to configure VMM to support self-service users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct response presents part of the
solution.
A. In the VMM library share, create a user data path.
B. Grant the Read permission and the Write permission to all role members.
C. In the Public Documents share, create a user data path.
D. Assign the Deploy action to the role members.
E. Grant the Read & execute permission to all role members.
F. Assign the Author action to the role members.
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation: A (not C): VMM for System Center 2012 allows self-service users to use the
VMM console, and to see their logical and physical resources in the Library workspace.
* Self-service user data paths Configure user data paths on self-service user roles to
provide a place where members of a self-service user role can upload and share their own
resources. The user data path also is the best place for administrators to store resources
that only members of a self-service user role need to use.
B: (not E) Access control permissions determine whether the users have Read/Write or
Read/only access.
F (not D):
* Author
Grants members permission to author templates and profiles. Users with authoring rights
can create hardware profiles, operating system profiles, application profiles, SQL Server
profiles, virtual machine templates and service templates.
* Deploy
Grants members permission to deploy virtual machines and services from templates and
virtual hard disks that are assigned to their user role. However, they do not have the right to
author templates and profiles.
Question No : 9
You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment that includes System Center
2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The environment includes five physical servers.
The servers are configured as follows:
You plan to use VMM to migrate physical machines to virtual machines.
You need to reconfigure the hardware on the servers to support a physical to virtual offline
migration.
Which three servers should you reconfigure? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
A. NYC-DEV
B. NYC-WEB
C. NYC-PR
D. NYC-FS
E. NYC-EX
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation: The source computer cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB. This
disqualifies NYC-FS( not D) and NYC-EX (not E).
Note:
* Requirements on the Source Machine
To perform a P2V conversion, your source computer:
/Must have at least 512 MB of RAM.
/ Cannot have any volumes larger than 2040 GB.
/ Must have an Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) BIOS – Vista WinPE
will not install on a non-ACPI BIOS.
/ Must be accessible by VMM and by the host computer.
/ Cannot be in a perimeter network. A perimeter network, which is also known as a
screened subnet, is a collection of devices and subnets placed between an intranet and the
Internet to help protect the intranet from unauthorized Internet users. The source computer
for a P2V conversion can be in any other network topology in which the VMM server can
connect to the source machine to temporarily install an agent and can make Windows
Management Instrumentation (WMI) calls to the source computer.
You administer a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The environment runs on a Windows
Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You use Systems Center 2012
R2 Operations Manager to troubleshoot performance issues.
Some users of dedicated virtual desktops report slow response times within their sessions.
Operations Manager reports indicate that a performance bottleneck exists at the storage
layer.
You need to manage the amount of input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the
dedicated desktop pool can generate.
What should you do?
A. Enable Resource Metering on the Hyper-V host server.
B. Configure Operations Manager to monitor virtual machine disk performance on the
Hyper-V host server. Configure monitoring alerts for virtual machine use greater than the
allowed IOPS.
C. For each virtual machine, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and
max mum value for the Mbps property.
D. For each virtual machine, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and
maximum value for IOPS.
Answer: C
A company has a Hyper-V failover cluster that consists of sixteen host servers that run
Windows Server 2012 R2. The company uses System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM) to manage the Hyper-V environment.
Eight of the host servers are used only for engineering-related services. The other eight
host servers are used for general corporate use.
You need to ensure that the corporate virtual machines (VMs) are never moved to the host
servers that are used for engineering.
What should you do?
A. Create a new VMM availability set for the corporate VMs.
B. Create a custom property for the corporate VMs and host servers. Then, use a custom
placement rule for the host group. Specify that the rule must match.
C. In the corporate VMs, set the value of the Preferred Owners setting to the names of the
corporate host servers.
D. Create a new VMM availability set for the corporate host servers.
Answer: B
Microsoft 98-373 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft 98-373 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 98-373
Exam name : Mobile Development Fundamentals
A programming theory that breaks design areas into distinct sections is referred to as:
A. Lists.
B. Separation of concerns.
C. Abstraction.
D. Inheritance.
Answer: B
You are working on a Windows Phone 7.5 application in Microsoft Visual Studio.
You plan to test the behavior of the application when tombstomng occurs.
You need to change the setting that instructs the debugger to use tombstoning instead of
deactivation during testing.
Where can you find the setting?
A. In the project's properties
B. In the Task List window
C. In the Configuration Manager
D. In the Toolbox window
Answer: A
What type of file is used to deploy Windows Phone 7 applications?
A. XAP
B. EXE
C. CAB
D. COM
Answer: A
What term describes the process of translating an application's strings into multiple
languages?
A. Globalization
B. Universalization
C. Multilingualization
D. Localization
Answer: D
Your mobile application has the following C* class methods: in:
What will be the result of the code when the FindLength method is called?
A. Throw a NullReferenceException
B. Throw an ArgumentNullException
C. Return -1
D. Return 0
Answer: A
You are designing the user interface for a Windows Phone 7 application by using Microsoft
Silverlight. Which markup language should you use?
A. DHTML
B. MAML
C. XAML
D. HTML
Answer: C
You plan to create Microsoft Silverlight code to join a multicast group that will subscribe the
user of the application to a group address. What method should you use?
A. Any-source multicast code
B. Anycast IP address
C. Multicast IP address
D. Single-source multicast code
Answer: A
What does the following code segment do? (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
A. Throws a NullReferenceException at line 17
B. Throws a NullReferenceException at line 19
C. Throws an InvalidOperationException at line 03
D. Throws an InvalidOperationException at line 09
Answer: C
Match each framework to its feature. (To answer, drag each framework from the column on
the left to its feature on the right. Each framework may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)
Answer:
You are creating a Windows Phone application to retrieve text data from a web service.
Which data-interchange format should you use to minimize data traffic for performance and
cost?
A. Plain Old Xml (POX)
B. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON)
C. Open Data Protocol (OData)
D. simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
Answer: B
To query a relational database, Language-Integrated Query (LINQ) translates queries from
mobile applications to:
A. SQL.
B. Batch scripts.
C. HTML.
D. Microsoft Silverlight.
Answer: A
You are creating an application that will allow users to send a customized email message
to a particular contact in their address book. Which two classes should you use? (Choose
two.)
A. EmailAddressChooserTask
B. AddressChooserTask
C. SaveEmailMAddressTask
D. EmailComposeTask
E. SmsComposeTask
Answer: A,D
Explanation: A:EmailAddressChooserTask
Allows an application to launch the Contacts application. Use this to obtain the email
address of a contact selected by the user.
D:EmailComposeTask
Allows an application to launch the email application with a new message displayed. Use
this to allow users to send email from your application.
Incorrect:
Not B:AddressChooserTask Class
Allows an application to launch the Contacts application. Use this to obtain the physical
address of a contact selected by the user.
What type of storage is used to prevent applications from directly modifying the data of
other applications?
A. SD Card
B. Isolated
C. Local
D. Remote
Answer: B
Which API is used to store and access data in the local database of a Windows Phone 7.5
application?
A. LINQ to SQL
B. Code First
C. MicrosoftADO.NET
D. Entity Framework
Answer: A
You need to prepare custom objects to save data to isolated storage by using the
IsolatedStorageSettings class. What should you do?
A. Implement the IXmlSenalizable interface.
B. Add the required attributes to use the DataContractSerializer class to the objects.
C. Create an XmlSerializationWriteCallback delegate for each of the classes,
D. Derive each of the custom classes from the XmlMapping class.
Answer: B
What are two extension methods implemented by the Queryable class that support
Language-Integrated Query (LINQ) queries? (Choose two.)
A. Round
B. Median
C. Query
D. Sum
E. Select
Answer: D,E
Explanation: Sum(IQueryable<Decimal>)Computes the sum of a sequence of Decimal
values.
Select<TSource, TResult>(IQueryable<TSource>, Expression<Func<TSource,
TResult>>)Projects each element of a sequence into a new form.
You need to use a background agent to keep a local database synchronized with a remote
data source. What is the maximum number of days you can schedule a background agent
to run?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 21
D. 28
Answer: B
Which class provides the device's orientation and movement in space in a Windows Phone
7.5 application?
A. Motion
B. Accelerometer
C. Compass
D. Gyroscope
Answer: A
Which networking feature is newly supported in Windows Phone 7.5?
A. wi-Fi
B. Sockets
C. Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) services
D. WebRequest API
Answer: B
Which three applications are available on a Windows Phone 7 device, but not on the device
emulator user interface? (Choose three.)
A. Windows Internet Explorer
B. Xbox Live
C. Pictures Hub
D. Windows Phone Marketplace
E. Bing Maps
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation: Windows Internet Explorer and Pictures Hub work in the device emulator.
Which description refers to the camera viewfinder preview stream's YCbCr color format
option?
A. YCbCr data can be converted to grayscale.
B. YCbCr data can be sent to an XNA Texture2D without conversion.
C. YCbCr data can be sent to a Microsoft SilverLight WriteableBitmap without conversion.
D. YCbCr is not supported by all Windows Phones.
Answer: A
Which sensor measures both force of gravity and forces resulting from movement on a
Windows Phone device?
A. Gyroscope
B. A-GPS
C. Compass
D. Accelerometer
Answer: D
Exam code : 98-373
Exam name : Mobile Development Fundamentals
A programming theory that breaks design areas into distinct sections is referred to as:
A. Lists.
B. Separation of concerns.
C. Abstraction.
D. Inheritance.
Answer: B
You are working on a Windows Phone 7.5 application in Microsoft Visual Studio.
You plan to test the behavior of the application when tombstomng occurs.
You need to change the setting that instructs the debugger to use tombstoning instead of
deactivation during testing.
Where can you find the setting?
A. In the project's properties
B. In the Task List window
C. In the Configuration Manager
D. In the Toolbox window
Answer: A
What type of file is used to deploy Windows Phone 7 applications?
A. XAP
B. EXE
C. CAB
D. COM
Answer: A
What term describes the process of translating an application's strings into multiple
languages?
A. Globalization
B. Universalization
C. Multilingualization
D. Localization
Answer: D
Your mobile application has the following C* class methods: in:
What will be the result of the code when the FindLength method is called?
A. Throw a NullReferenceException
B. Throw an ArgumentNullException
C. Return -1
D. Return 0
Answer: A
You are designing the user interface for a Windows Phone 7 application by using Microsoft
Silverlight. Which markup language should you use?
A. DHTML
B. MAML
C. XAML
D. HTML
Answer: C
You plan to create Microsoft Silverlight code to join a multicast group that will subscribe the
user of the application to a group address. What method should you use?
A. Any-source multicast code
B. Anycast IP address
C. Multicast IP address
D. Single-source multicast code
Answer: A
What does the following code segment do? (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
A. Throws a NullReferenceException at line 17
B. Throws a NullReferenceException at line 19
C. Throws an InvalidOperationException at line 03
D. Throws an InvalidOperationException at line 09
Answer: C
Match each framework to its feature. (To answer, drag each framework from the column on
the left to its feature on the right. Each framework may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)
Answer:
You are creating a Windows Phone application to retrieve text data from a web service.
Which data-interchange format should you use to minimize data traffic for performance and
cost?
A. Plain Old Xml (POX)
B. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON)
C. Open Data Protocol (OData)
D. simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
Answer: B
To query a relational database, Language-Integrated Query (LINQ) translates queries from
mobile applications to:
A. SQL.
B. Batch scripts.
C. HTML.
D. Microsoft Silverlight.
Answer: A
You are creating an application that will allow users to send a customized email message
to a particular contact in their address book. Which two classes should you use? (Choose
two.)
A. EmailAddressChooserTask
B. AddressChooserTask
C. SaveEmailMAddressTask
D. EmailComposeTask
E. SmsComposeTask
Answer: A,D
Explanation: A:EmailAddressChooserTask
Allows an application to launch the Contacts application. Use this to obtain the email
address of a contact selected by the user.
D:EmailComposeTask
Allows an application to launch the email application with a new message displayed. Use
this to allow users to send email from your application.
Incorrect:
Not B:AddressChooserTask Class
Allows an application to launch the Contacts application. Use this to obtain the physical
address of a contact selected by the user.
What type of storage is used to prevent applications from directly modifying the data of
other applications?
A. SD Card
B. Isolated
C. Local
D. Remote
Answer: B
Which API is used to store and access data in the local database of a Windows Phone 7.5
application?
A. LINQ to SQL
B. Code First
C. MicrosoftADO.NET
D. Entity Framework
Answer: A
You need to prepare custom objects to save data to isolated storage by using the
IsolatedStorageSettings class. What should you do?
A. Implement the IXmlSenalizable interface.
B. Add the required attributes to use the DataContractSerializer class to the objects.
C. Create an XmlSerializationWriteCallback delegate for each of the classes,
D. Derive each of the custom classes from the XmlMapping class.
Answer: B
What are two extension methods implemented by the Queryable class that support
Language-Integrated Query (LINQ) queries? (Choose two.)
A. Round
B. Median
C. Query
D. Sum
E. Select
Answer: D,E
Explanation: Sum(IQueryable<Decimal>)Computes the sum of a sequence of Decimal
values.
Select<TSource, TResult>(IQueryable<TSource>, Expression<Func<TSource,
TResult>>)Projects each element of a sequence into a new form.
You need to use a background agent to keep a local database synchronized with a remote
data source. What is the maximum number of days you can schedule a background agent
to run?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 21
D. 28
Answer: B
Which class provides the device's orientation and movement in space in a Windows Phone
7.5 application?
A. Motion
B. Accelerometer
C. Compass
D. Gyroscope
Answer: A
Which networking feature is newly supported in Windows Phone 7.5?
A. wi-Fi
B. Sockets
C. Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) services
D. WebRequest API
Answer: B
Which three applications are available on a Windows Phone 7 device, but not on the device
emulator user interface? (Choose three.)
A. Windows Internet Explorer
B. Xbox Live
C. Pictures Hub
D. Windows Phone Marketplace
E. Bing Maps
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation: Windows Internet Explorer and Pictures Hub work in the device emulator.
Which description refers to the camera viewfinder preview stream's YCbCr color format
option?
A. YCbCr data can be converted to grayscale.
B. YCbCr data can be sent to an XNA Texture2D without conversion.
C. YCbCr data can be sent to a Microsoft SilverLight WriteableBitmap without conversion.
D. YCbCr is not supported by all Windows Phones.
Answer: A
Which sensor measures both force of gravity and forces resulting from movement on a
Windows Phone device?
A. Gyroscope
B. A-GPS
C. Compass
D. Accelerometer
Answer: D
C2040-422 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
C2040-422 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : C2040-422
Exam name : IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core B
Which two reasons are valid for using virtual portals? (Choose two.)
A. Each virtual portal can have a dedicated user population.
B. Each virtual portal can have its own database for performance.
C. Each virtual portal can have its own group of administrators defined.
D. Each virtual portal can have its own JVM to accommodate resource-intensive virtual
portals.
E. Each virtual portal can have its own cumulative fix applied without affecting other virtual
portals on the same installation.
Answer: A,B
How does authentication happen in a syndication relationship?
A. No authentication is required because syndication uses a REST service.
B. The Portal Administrator is used for authentication between the subscriber and the
syndicator.
C. The currently logged-on user is used for authentication between the subscriber and the
syndicator.
D. The user in the predefined credential vault slot is used for authentication between the
subscriber and the syndicator.
Answer: A
Lucy noticed that, after a custom portlet was updated.java.lang.ClassNotFoundException
messages started to appear in the log files. She has decided to use the Loader Service
portal to help her diagnose the problem. Initially, she wants to turn on dynamic tracing.
Which Java class must be turned on for tracing?
A. com.ibm.wps-services.finder.*=all
B. com.ibm.wps.services.ClassLoader=all
C. com.ibm.wps.services.LoaderService=all
D. com.ibm.wps.services.ServiceManager=all
Answer: C
Alice logged into IBM WebSphere Portal and is impersonating Bob.
How does the audit log register this fact?
A. The user is shown as Bob-Alice in the log file.
B. The user is shown as [ Bob [Alice ] ] in the log file.
C. The user is shown as [Alice [_Bob] ]
D. The user is shown as [Bob_lmperson [Alice ] ] in the log file.
Answer: D
Sam is experiencing an error within IBM WebSphere Portal.
What should he do next to collect the right files to troubleshoot the problem before calling
Support?
A. Compress the log archive and email it to IBM.
B. Use the IBM Support Assistant Data Collector.
C. Back up the file with the error to send after opening the PMR.
D. Copy the snippet of the error into an email and send it to IBM.
Answer: C
John wants to know how the Garbage Collector of his portal works. Which set of embedded
tools can he use?
A. Portal Monitoring Interface
B. Garbage Collector Analysis
C. Performance GC Collections
D. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: B
Exam code : C2040-422
Exam name : IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core B
Which two reasons are valid for using virtual portals? (Choose two.)
A. Each virtual portal can have a dedicated user population.
B. Each virtual portal can have its own database for performance.
C. Each virtual portal can have its own group of administrators defined.
D. Each virtual portal can have its own JVM to accommodate resource-intensive virtual
portals.
E. Each virtual portal can have its own cumulative fix applied without affecting other virtual
portals on the same installation.
Answer: A,B
How does authentication happen in a syndication relationship?
A. No authentication is required because syndication uses a REST service.
B. The Portal Administrator is used for authentication between the subscriber and the
syndicator.
C. The currently logged-on user is used for authentication between the subscriber and the
syndicator.
D. The user in the predefined credential vault slot is used for authentication between the
subscriber and the syndicator.
Answer: A
Lucy noticed that, after a custom portlet was updated.java.lang.ClassNotFoundException
messages started to appear in the log files. She has decided to use the Loader Service
portal to help her diagnose the problem. Initially, she wants to turn on dynamic tracing.
Which Java class must be turned on for tracing?
A. com.ibm.wps-services.finder.*=all
B. com.ibm.wps.services.ClassLoader=all
C. com.ibm.wps.services.LoaderService=all
D. com.ibm.wps.services.ServiceManager=all
Answer: C
Alice logged into IBM WebSphere Portal and is impersonating Bob.
How does the audit log register this fact?
A. The user is shown as Bob-Alice in the log file.
B. The user is shown as [ Bob [Alice ] ] in the log file.
C. The user is shown as [Alice [_Bob] ]
D. The user is shown as [Bob_lmperson [Alice ] ] in the log file.
Answer: D
Sam is experiencing an error within IBM WebSphere Portal.
What should he do next to collect the right files to troubleshoot the problem before calling
Support?
A. Compress the log archive and email it to IBM.
B. Use the IBM Support Assistant Data Collector.
C. Back up the file with the error to send after opening the PMR.
D. Copy the snippet of the error into an email and send it to IBM.
Answer: C
John wants to know how the Garbage Collector of his portal works. Which set of embedded
tools can he use?
A. Portal Monitoring Interface
B. Garbage Collector Analysis
C. Performance GC Collections
D. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: B
C2040-421 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
C2040-421 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : C2040-421
Exam name : IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core A
Andrea is upgrading from IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 to WebSphere Portal 8.5. He needs
to change the security, moving it from stand-alone LDAP to federated LDAP.
Which properties file must he edit before he runs the appropriate configuration command?
A. wkplc .properties
B. wkplc.comp.properties
C. wp_security_federated.properties
D. wp-modify-federated-security.properties
Answer: B
Which configuration tasks must be run in a stand-alone environment to enable the property
extension database?
A. wp-la-install-ear only
B. wp-la-install-ear andwp-configure-la-complete
C. wp-la-install-ear and wp-prep-vnun-db-secured-environment
D. wp-la-install-ear and wp-node-prep-vmm-db-secured-environment
Answer: A
When upgrading an environment with multiple profiles, which statement is true?
A. Additional profiles must be recreated with the upgraded code.
B. All profiles are automatically upgraded by IBM Installation Manager.
C. Additional configuration steps are required to upgrade additional profiles.
D. Additional profiles do not need to be upgraded if the primary profile is upgraded.
Answer: C
An IBM WebSphere Portal environment is integrated with SAP and uses a single sign-on
solution.
Which option must be imported into SAP if any changes occur on the WebSphere Portal
side of the configuration?
A. httpd.conf
B. LT PA Token
C. sap_sso.xml
D. plugin-cfg.xml
Answer: C
Assuming default settings, when a domain database is not available, what happens to IBM
WebSphere Portal?
A. It crashes.
B. Some data can be lost.
C. It cannot access the corresponding data.
D. It becomes unavailable and must be restarted.
Answer: A
Bill's company is migrating an IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 environment to version 8.5.
Which two statements are true for the Web Clipper portlet to be migrated? (Choose two.)
A. The Web Clipper portlet is no longer supported.
B. Bill's company must use the Virtual Web Application Manager portlet instead.
C. The Web Clipper portlet will be migrated successfully by the migration tooling.
D. The Web Clipper portlet must be downloaded and installed manually post-migration.
E. The migration tooling must be configured to convert the Web Clipper portlet to a custom
portlet.
Answer: B,C
Exam code : C2040-421
Exam name : IBM WebSphere Portal 8.5 System Administration Core A
Andrea is upgrading from IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 to WebSphere Portal 8.5. He needs
to change the security, moving it from stand-alone LDAP to federated LDAP.
Which properties file must he edit before he runs the appropriate configuration command?
A. wkplc .properties
B. wkplc.comp.properties
C. wp_security_federated.properties
D. wp-modify-federated-security.properties
Answer: B
Which configuration tasks must be run in a stand-alone environment to enable the property
extension database?
A. wp-la-install-ear only
B. wp-la-install-ear andwp-configure-la-complete
C. wp-la-install-ear and wp-prep-vnun-db-secured-environment
D. wp-la-install-ear and wp-node-prep-vmm-db-secured-environment
Answer: A
When upgrading an environment with multiple profiles, which statement is true?
A. Additional profiles must be recreated with the upgraded code.
B. All profiles are automatically upgraded by IBM Installation Manager.
C. Additional configuration steps are required to upgrade additional profiles.
D. Additional profiles do not need to be upgraded if the primary profile is upgraded.
Answer: C
An IBM WebSphere Portal environment is integrated with SAP and uses a single sign-on
solution.
Which option must be imported into SAP if any changes occur on the WebSphere Portal
side of the configuration?
A. httpd.conf
B. LT PA Token
C. sap_sso.xml
D. plugin-cfg.xml
Answer: C
Assuming default settings, when a domain database is not available, what happens to IBM
WebSphere Portal?
A. It crashes.
B. Some data can be lost.
C. It cannot access the corresponding data.
D. It becomes unavailable and must be restarted.
Answer: A
Bill's company is migrating an IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 environment to version 8.5.
Which two statements are true for the Web Clipper portlet to be migrated? (Choose two.)
A. The Web Clipper portlet is no longer supported.
B. Bill's company must use the Virtual Web Application Manager portlet instead.
C. The Web Clipper portlet will be migrated successfully by the migration tooling.
D. The Web Clipper portlet must be downloaded and installed manually post-migration.
E. The migration tooling must be configured to convert the Web Clipper portlet to a custom
portlet.
Answer: B,C
C2090-304 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
C2090-304 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : C2090-304
Exam name : IBM InfoSphere QualityStage v9.1 Solution Developer
How does QualityStage output the correct ISO code for a record?
A. ISO code functionality is not available.
B. ISO code supplied by the Country rule set.
C. ISO code supplied by the USPREP rule set.
D. ISO code supplied by the US Address rule set.
Answer: C
Explanation: The ISOterritorycode is appended to the domain preprocessor abbreviation
(PREP).
You need to create a batch delta match process for transaction records against a very
large master file of existing clients.
Which QualityStage match option should be used?
A. Transitive One-source match
B. Two-source many-to-one match
C. Deterministic One-source match
D. Two-source many-to-many match
Answer: A
Explanation: Transitive One-source matchcan extend further than one-source-dependent
because it uses all the pairs that score above the match cutoff. It's recommended if you
want to account forinconsistentdata entryin fields that assist in duplicate identification.
How can Word Investigation reports be used to modify a rule set?
A. Corrects spelling errors in the data field.
B. Adds tokens to allow identification of additional duplicates.
C. Identifies new tokens to allow additional words to be classified.
D. Identifies matched words to be used in match designer frequency distribution.
Answer: A
Which statement about the jobs used by the Match Specification Setup Wizard is true?
A. The jobs must be created.
B. The jobs must be imported.
C. The jobs exist for only One-source individual match.
D. The jobs are created in the repository at installation time.
Answer: A
When would you use the survive technique 'Most Frequent'?
A. When more than one target field is required.
B. When the most frequent occurrence is required.
C. When the most frequently populated value is required.
D. When the most frequently populated value is required with two or more occurrences.
Answer: D
You are designing a reference match that will be run on a daily basis. Where should the
reference data frequencies typically be generated?
A. In a Server job in the same Job Sequence.
B. In a shared container in the same job as the match.
C. In a different job stream and part of the daily process.
D. In a different job stream and not part of the daily process.
Answer: B
Exam code : C2090-304
Exam name : IBM InfoSphere QualityStage v9.1 Solution Developer
How does QualityStage output the correct ISO code for a record?
A. ISO code functionality is not available.
B. ISO code supplied by the Country rule set.
C. ISO code supplied by the USPREP rule set.
D. ISO code supplied by the US Address rule set.
Answer: C
Explanation: The ISOterritorycode is appended to the domain preprocessor abbreviation
(PREP).
You need to create a batch delta match process for transaction records against a very
large master file of existing clients.
Which QualityStage match option should be used?
A. Transitive One-source match
B. Two-source many-to-one match
C. Deterministic One-source match
D. Two-source many-to-many match
Answer: A
Explanation: Transitive One-source matchcan extend further than one-source-dependent
because it uses all the pairs that score above the match cutoff. It's recommended if you
want to account forinconsistentdata entryin fields that assist in duplicate identification.
How can Word Investigation reports be used to modify a rule set?
A. Corrects spelling errors in the data field.
B. Adds tokens to allow identification of additional duplicates.
C. Identifies new tokens to allow additional words to be classified.
D. Identifies matched words to be used in match designer frequency distribution.
Answer: A
Which statement about the jobs used by the Match Specification Setup Wizard is true?
A. The jobs must be created.
B. The jobs must be imported.
C. The jobs exist for only One-source individual match.
D. The jobs are created in the repository at installation time.
Answer: A
When would you use the survive technique 'Most Frequent'?
A. When more than one target field is required.
B. When the most frequent occurrence is required.
C. When the most frequently populated value is required.
D. When the most frequently populated value is required with two or more occurrences.
Answer: D
You are designing a reference match that will be run on a daily basis. Where should the
reference data frequencies typically be generated?
A. In a Server job in the same Job Sequence.
B. In a shared container in the same job as the match.
C. In a different job stream and part of the daily process.
D. In a different job stream and not part of the daily process.
Answer: B
IBM C2040-414 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
IBM C2040-414 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : C2040-414
Exam name : IBM Sametime 9.0 Fundamentals Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
The IBM Sametime Meeting Server supports which file types for document conversion?
A. zip, iso, exe
B. doc. xls. ppt
C. log, csv, key
D. vcf. xml. wav
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
In which policy is the setting "Allow screen sharing" found?
A. Meeting
B. Sametime
C. Media Manager
D. Instant Messaging
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
The ability to create an audio video conference with more than two participants requires the use of
which type of server?
A. IBM Sametime Proxy Server
B. IBM Sametime Video Manager
C. IBM Sametime Unified Telephony Server
D. IBM Sametime Multimedia Control Server
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two features are included with Sametime 9 Mobile Chat Client?
A. Meeting support
B. Broadcast tool support
C. Multi-point video on phone
D. Point-to-point video on tablets
E. Push-notification support for Android
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Mary supports an internal IBM Sametime 9.0 environment used for instant messaging, presence
awareness and meeting rooms with audio and video features.
What additional components are required to allow external Sametime Connect clients to use audio
and video features without a VPN connection?
A. Sametime TURN server and Sametime Proxy server
B. Sametime TURN server and IBM SIP Edge Proxy server
C. Sametime TURN server and Sametime Audio/Video Bridge
D. SIP Edge Proxy Server and Sametime AudioA/ideo Bridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
James, the IBM Sametime administrator, would like to configure the Sametime Proxy Server to
use an IBM Connections server for Business Card information instead of the Sametime
Community Server.
Where would James make this change?
A. stconfig.nsf database on the Sametime Community Server
B. Sametime Administration Tool under Configuration > Business Card Setup
C. Sametime System Console under Sametime Servers > Sametime Proxy Servers
D. Sametime System Console under Servers > WebSphere Application Servers > STProxyServer
Answer: B
Exam code : C2040-414
Exam name : IBM Sametime 9.0 Fundamentals Exam
QUESTION NO: 1
The IBM Sametime Meeting Server supports which file types for document conversion?
A. zip, iso, exe
B. doc. xls. ppt
C. log, csv, key
D. vcf. xml. wav
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
In which policy is the setting "Allow screen sharing" found?
A. Meeting
B. Sametime
C. Media Manager
D. Instant Messaging
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
The ability to create an audio video conference with more than two participants requires the use of
which type of server?
A. IBM Sametime Proxy Server
B. IBM Sametime Video Manager
C. IBM Sametime Unified Telephony Server
D. IBM Sametime Multimedia Control Server
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two features are included with Sametime 9 Mobile Chat Client?
A. Meeting support
B. Broadcast tool support
C. Multi-point video on phone
D. Point-to-point video on tablets
E. Push-notification support for Android
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Mary supports an internal IBM Sametime 9.0 environment used for instant messaging, presence
awareness and meeting rooms with audio and video features.
What additional components are required to allow external Sametime Connect clients to use audio
and video features without a VPN connection?
A. Sametime TURN server and Sametime Proxy server
B. Sametime TURN server and IBM SIP Edge Proxy server
C. Sametime TURN server and Sametime Audio/Video Bridge
D. SIP Edge Proxy Server and Sametime AudioA/ideo Bridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
James, the IBM Sametime administrator, would like to configure the Sametime Proxy Server to
use an IBM Connections server for Business Card information instead of the Sametime
Community Server.
Where would James make this change?
A. stconfig.nsf database on the Sametime Community Server
B. Sametime Administration Tool under Configuration > Business Card Setup
C. Sametime System Console under Sametime Servers > Sametime Proxy Servers
D. Sametime System Console under Servers > WebSphere Application Servers > STProxyServer
Answer: B
Thursday, August 28, 2014
HP0-D15 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP0-D15 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : HP0-D15
Exam name : Administering HP CloudSystem Matrix Solutions
A small college is considering a cloud environment where the infrastructure is hosted by a
third-party provider and shared with colleges and universities with similar research needs.
All of the colleges and universities share the associated costs. Which type of a cloud
delivery model does this scenario represent?
A. Community cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: A
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Community_cloud
Drag and drop the boxes.
Drag and drop the correct component onto its representative functions within the HP Insight
Management suite.
(Note – Not all choices will be used.)
Which HP software offering or tool consists of optimized and tested templates for use with
an HP CloudSystem to automate the deployment application in the cloud?
A. HP Cloud Content Delivery
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP Cloud Service Automation
D. HP Cloud Maps
Answer: D
Reference:
http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03482833/c03482833.pdf
(page 2, Introduction, second paragraph)
Which icon on the HP SIM home page, when clicked, displays the contract and warranty for
the GbE2c, switch installed in the SESD2_emc enclosure?
DRAG the purple marker and place it on the appropriate icon.
Answer: The i icon
Which HP software enables multi-site Matrix OE recovery management for HP
CloudSystem Matrix that uses the HP P6000 EVA storage solution?
A. HP Navigator
B. HP data Protector
C. HP ServiceGuard
D. HP Continuous Access
E. HP Business Copy
Answer: D
What is the purpose of HP SiteScope within the HP CloudSystem Matrix Solution?
A. Provision application
B. Monitor availability and performance
C. Secure the environment
D. Provision infrastructure
Answer: B
Exam code : HP0-D15
Exam name : Administering HP CloudSystem Matrix Solutions
A small college is considering a cloud environment where the infrastructure is hosted by a
third-party provider and shared with colleges and universities with similar research needs.
All of the colleges and universities share the associated costs. Which type of a cloud
delivery model does this scenario represent?
A. Community cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: A
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Community_cloud
Drag and drop the boxes.
Drag and drop the correct component onto its representative functions within the HP Insight
Management suite.
(Note – Not all choices will be used.)
Which HP software offering or tool consists of optimized and tested templates for use with
an HP CloudSystem to automate the deployment application in the cloud?
A. HP Cloud Content Delivery
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP Cloud Service Automation
D. HP Cloud Maps
Answer: D
Reference:
http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03482833/c03482833.pdf
(page 2, Introduction, second paragraph)
Which icon on the HP SIM home page, when clicked, displays the contract and warranty for
the GbE2c, switch installed in the SESD2_emc enclosure?
DRAG the purple marker and place it on the appropriate icon.
Answer: The i icon
Which HP software enables multi-site Matrix OE recovery management for HP
CloudSystem Matrix that uses the HP P6000 EVA storage solution?
A. HP Navigator
B. HP data Protector
C. HP ServiceGuard
D. HP Continuous Access
E. HP Business Copy
Answer: D
What is the purpose of HP SiteScope within the HP CloudSystem Matrix Solution?
A. Provision application
B. Monitor availability and performance
C. Secure the environment
D. Provision infrastructure
Answer: B
Wednesday, August 27, 2014
Microsoft MB2-703 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft MB2-703 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : MB2-703
Exam name : Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration
A custom entity is no longer required. What should you do before deleting the entity?
A. Remove the entity from any required security roles.
B. Check whether the entity has any dependencies.
C. Reassign all the records in the entity.
D. Change the entity ownership to Organization.
Answer: B
You are creating a customized Solution for a conference.
Each conference attendee can register for multiple sessions, and each session can have
multiple registered attendees. Attendees complete surveys after each session. Surveys
have custom fields.
Which relationship type should you use between attendees and session registrations to
track surveys?
A. One-to-many (1:N) from session registration to attendee
B. One-to-many (1:N) from attendee to session registration
C. Native many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration
D. Manual many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration
Answer: D
You need to add a new custom entity to a Microsoft Dynamics CRM database. Which three
actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Execute a workflow.
B. Import a Solution.
C. Run a dialog.
D. Create a new entity in the default Solution.
E. Import data.
Answer: A,B,D
What type of relationship exists between the Marketing List entity and the Contact entity?
A. One-to-many (1:N)
B. Many-to-one (N:l)
C. Native many-to-many (N:N)
D. Manual many-to-many (N:N)
Answer: C
You are using Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online.
You plan to create an entity named Project. The Project entity will have 15 custom fields.
Which two properties can you change after you create the entity? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Ownership
B. Number of fields
C. Define as activity entity
D. Display Name
Answer: B,D
You are creating a custom entity.
Which three communication and collaboration features can be disabled after they are
enabled? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Sending email
B. Access Teams
C. Document management
D. Mail merge
E. Notes
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Ref: http://msdynamicscrmblog. wordpress. com/2013/11/11/entity-optionsin-
dynamics-crm-2013/
You customize the Lead entity by adding a country option set that is automatically
populated for records created by a third-party website.
You map the country option set in the Lead entity to a country option set in the Contact
entity.
When you create a Contact record, what happens if the option set value specified in the
Lead does not exist in the Contact country option set?
A. The text label and integer value for the country are copied from the Lead country option
set to the Contact country option set.
B. The text label for the country is copied from the Lead country option set to the Contact
country option set and a new integer value is assigned.
C. The country is copied to the Contact record but not added to the Contact country option
set.
D. The country field in the Contact record is left blank.
Answer: B
When auditing is enabled, which statement about field auditing is true?
A. Field auditing properties can be set for only one field at a time.
B. Auditing can be turned on or off for a field at any time.
C. Auditing can be turned on for a custom field only while creating the field.
D. Field-level audit properties can be used to create exceptions for an entity that is not
enabled for auditing.
Answer: B
A user is editing an Account entity for the first time. The Address 1: Address Type of
Account field contains four options, in this order:
Bill To
Ship To
Primary
Other
The user deletes the Ship To and Other options, adds an option named Secondary, and
then saves and publishes the record. What are the default values of the options in the
record?
A. 1; 3; 100,000,001
B. 0000001; 0000003; 1000001
C. 1:3:5
D. 1;2;3
E. 1; 3; 100,000,000
Answer: E
Exam code : MB2-703
Exam name : Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Customization and Configuration
A custom entity is no longer required. What should you do before deleting the entity?
A. Remove the entity from any required security roles.
B. Check whether the entity has any dependencies.
C. Reassign all the records in the entity.
D. Change the entity ownership to Organization.
Answer: B
You are creating a customized Solution for a conference.
Each conference attendee can register for multiple sessions, and each session can have
multiple registered attendees. Attendees complete surveys after each session. Surveys
have custom fields.
Which relationship type should you use between attendees and session registrations to
track surveys?
A. One-to-many (1:N) from session registration to attendee
B. One-to-many (1:N) from attendee to session registration
C. Native many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration
D. Manual many-to-many (N:N) between attendee and session registration
Answer: D
You need to add a new custom entity to a Microsoft Dynamics CRM database. Which three
actions can you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Execute a workflow.
B. Import a Solution.
C. Run a dialog.
D. Create a new entity in the default Solution.
E. Import data.
Answer: A,B,D
What type of relationship exists between the Marketing List entity and the Contact entity?
A. One-to-many (1:N)
B. Many-to-one (N:l)
C. Native many-to-many (N:N)
D. Manual many-to-many (N:N)
Answer: C
You are using Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online.
You plan to create an entity named Project. The Project entity will have 15 custom fields.
Which two properties can you change after you create the entity? Each correct answer
presents a complete solution.
A. Ownership
B. Number of fields
C. Define as activity entity
D. Display Name
Answer: B,D
You are creating a custom entity.
Which three communication and collaboration features can be disabled after they are
enabled? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Sending email
B. Access Teams
C. Document management
D. Mail merge
E. Notes
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Ref: http://msdynamicscrmblog. wordpress. com/2013/11/11/entity-optionsin-
dynamics-crm-2013/
You customize the Lead entity by adding a country option set that is automatically
populated for records created by a third-party website.
You map the country option set in the Lead entity to a country option set in the Contact
entity.
When you create a Contact record, what happens if the option set value specified in the
Lead does not exist in the Contact country option set?
A. The text label and integer value for the country are copied from the Lead country option
set to the Contact country option set.
B. The text label for the country is copied from the Lead country option set to the Contact
country option set and a new integer value is assigned.
C. The country is copied to the Contact record but not added to the Contact country option
set.
D. The country field in the Contact record is left blank.
Answer: B
When auditing is enabled, which statement about field auditing is true?
A. Field auditing properties can be set for only one field at a time.
B. Auditing can be turned on or off for a field at any time.
C. Auditing can be turned on for a custom field only while creating the field.
D. Field-level audit properties can be used to create exceptions for an entity that is not
enabled for auditing.
Answer: B
A user is editing an Account entity for the first time. The Address 1: Address Type of
Account field contains four options, in this order:
Bill To
Ship To
Primary
Other
The user deletes the Ship To and Other options, adds an option named Secondary, and
then saves and publishes the record. What are the default values of the options in the
record?
A. 1; 3; 100,000,001
B. 0000001; 0000003; 1000001
C. 1:3:5
D. 1;2;3
E. 1; 3; 100,000,000
Answer: E
Microsoft MB2-700 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft MB2-700 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : MB2-700
Exam name : Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Applications
You review a published Knowledge Base article.
Which two actions can you perform? (Choose TWO)
A. Add a note
B. Change the subject
C. Add a keyword
D. Add a section
E. Add a comment
Answer: A,E
What role do keywords play in the Knowledge Base?
A. Keywords are only used to manage the Knowledge Base.
B. Keywords relate similar cases to each other
C. Keywords are used to search for articles.
D. Keywords define the subject tree.
Answer: C
You review a Knowledge Base article.
On the Article tab of the ribbon, which option is NOT in the Action group?
A. Submit
B. Unpublish
C. Approve
D. Reject
E. Publish
Answer: E
Which two record types require a reference to the subject tree? Each answer presents part
of the solution. (Choose TWO)
A. Sales Attachments
B. Case Resolution Activity
C. Cases
D. Sales Literature
E. Knowledge Base articles
Answer: D,E
A company tracks competitors by using Connection records instead of using the native
Competitors feature in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. The company assigns a Connection with
the Connection Roles of Related Opportunity and Competitor between the Opportunity and
the Account, which represents the competitor. Accounts have a flag which designates the
record as a competitor.
Which statement is true?
A. The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the
Opportunity’s resolution activity for Lost Opportunities.
B. A Connection record is created between the Opportunity and the Account.
C. The Competitor/Win Loss report uses the Connection record to indicate how well the
organization is doing versus a competitor
D. The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the
Opportunity’s resolution activity for Won Opportunities.
Answer: B
In which two circumstances does the autosave process save changes to Lead
records?(Choose TWO)
A. When a user exits a changed record
B. Every 30 seconds
C. When a user creates the record
D. Every 120 seconds
E. Every time a user moves the focus out of an edited field
Answer: A,B
Which field is required to create a new Opportunity record?
A. Originating Lead
B. Customer
C. Topic
D. Contact
E. Account
Answer: C
When you qualify a lead, which two records will also be created?(Choose TWO)
A. Account
B. Contract
C. Campaign Response
D. Opportunity
E. Contact
Answer: A,D
Which type of activity can you convert to a Lead?
A. Task
B. Appointment
C. Email
D. Fax
Answer: C
When creating a Lead, which type of information can you enter on the Main Lead form?
A. Goals
B. Competitors
C. Additional addresses
D. Products
Answer: B
Exam code : MB2-700
Exam name : Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 Applications
You review a published Knowledge Base article.
Which two actions can you perform? (Choose TWO)
A. Add a note
B. Change the subject
C. Add a keyword
D. Add a section
E. Add a comment
Answer: A,E
What role do keywords play in the Knowledge Base?
A. Keywords are only used to manage the Knowledge Base.
B. Keywords relate similar cases to each other
C. Keywords are used to search for articles.
D. Keywords define the subject tree.
Answer: C
You review a Knowledge Base article.
On the Article tab of the ribbon, which option is NOT in the Action group?
A. Submit
B. Unpublish
C. Approve
D. Reject
E. Publish
Answer: E
Which two record types require a reference to the subject tree? Each answer presents part
of the solution. (Choose TWO)
A. Sales Attachments
B. Case Resolution Activity
C. Cases
D. Sales Literature
E. Knowledge Base articles
Answer: D,E
A company tracks competitors by using Connection records instead of using the native
Competitors feature in Microsoft Dynamics CRM. The company assigns a Connection with
the Connection Roles of Related Opportunity and Competitor between the Opportunity and
the Account, which represents the competitor. Accounts have a flag which designates the
record as a competitor.
Which statement is true?
A. The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the
Opportunity’s resolution activity for Lost Opportunities.
B. A Connection record is created between the Opportunity and the Account.
C. The Competitor/Win Loss report uses the Connection record to indicate how well the
organization is doing versus a competitor
D. The Connection record is used to populate the options in the Competitor field on the
Opportunity’s resolution activity for Won Opportunities.
Answer: B
In which two circumstances does the autosave process save changes to Lead
records?(Choose TWO)
A. When a user exits a changed record
B. Every 30 seconds
C. When a user creates the record
D. Every 120 seconds
E. Every time a user moves the focus out of an edited field
Answer: A,B
Which field is required to create a new Opportunity record?
A. Originating Lead
B. Customer
C. Topic
D. Contact
E. Account
Answer: C
When you qualify a lead, which two records will also be created?(Choose TWO)
A. Account
B. Contract
C. Campaign Response
D. Opportunity
E. Contact
Answer: A,D
Which type of activity can you convert to a Lead?
A. Task
B. Appointment
C. Email
D. Fax
Answer: C
When creating a Lead, which type of information can you enter on the Main Lead form?
A. Goals
B. Competitors
C. Additional addresses
D. Products
Answer: B
Microsoft 70-346 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft 70-346 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 70-346
Exam name : Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses
assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing
processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned
by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter "DisabledOnly" | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter "DisabledOnly" | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C
Explanation: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn194133.aspx
Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365
services.
Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises
SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements.
You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the
answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 2 DRAG DROP
Answer:
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You prepare to use the bulk add tool to add users to Office 365.
You need to prepare a file to use with the bulk add tool.
Which fields must you include in the file? To answer, drag the appropriate response to
each field. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need
to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 3 HOTSPOT
Answer:
A company has 50 employees that use Office 365.
You need to enforce password complexity requirements for all accounts.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP
Answer:
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for
collaboration.
You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question No : 5 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Exam code : 70-346
Exam name : Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses
assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing
processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned
by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter "DisabledOnly" | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter "DisabledOnly" | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C
Explanation: Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn194133.aspx
Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365
services.
Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises
SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements.
You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the
answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 2 DRAG DROP
Answer:
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You prepare to use the bulk add tool to add users to Office 365.
You need to prepare a file to use with the bulk add tool.
Which fields must you include in the file? To answer, drag the appropriate response to
each field. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need
to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 3 HOTSPOT
Answer:
A company has 50 employees that use Office 365.
You need to enforce password complexity requirements for all accounts.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Question No : 4 DRAG DROP
Answer:
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for
collaboration.
You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each
Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:
Question No : 5 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Microsoft MB2-701 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Microsoft MB2-701 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : MB2-701
Exam name : Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
You are running Fetch-based reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which component should you add to the computer that has Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS) installed?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Administrative Reports
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
C. SQL Server Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension
Answer: B
Which Microsoft Dynamics CRM web resource is used to validate data that is entered in a
te box?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. CSS
D. JavaScript
Answer: D
Which component defines the navigation areas for Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
and Microsoft Dynamics CRM for tablets?
A. SiteMap
B. Application ribbon
C. Style Sheet (CSS)
D. Service endpoint
Answer: A
Which object is used to retrieve the root URL for an organization?
A. GetClientUrl
B. PrependOrgName
C. GetObject
D. GetQueryStringParameters
Answer: A
What is the correct term for a set of components that can be transported between different
Microsoft Dynamics CRM organizations?
A. Solution
B. User settings
C. Extensions
D. Data maps
Answer: B
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM, which feature is included as part of the application framework
model?
A. presentation
B. asynchronous business logic
C. multi-tenancy
D. web services
Answer: A
You are making a manual edit to the Account entity command bar.
Which section of the file customizations.xml for the Account entity should you update?
A. FormXml
B. SiteMap
C. RibbonDiffXml
D. EntityInfo
Answer: C
You are trying to obtain an Account record from Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You do NOT know the name of the Account record.
Which method should you use to discover the Account record?
A. RetrieveMultiple
B. Create
C. Retrieve
D. Update
Answer: A
Which three actions can be performed on entity records when you use the Open Data
Protocol (OData)?
A. Count
B. Execute
C. Create
D. Delete
E. Update
Answer: C,D,E
Exam code : MB2-701
Exam name : Extending Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
You are running Fetch-based reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which component should you add to the computer that has Microsoft SQL Server
Reporting Services (SSRS) installed?
A. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Administrative Reports
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions
C. SQL Server Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM Report Authoring Extension
Answer: B
Which Microsoft Dynamics CRM web resource is used to validate data that is entered in a
te box?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. CSS
D. JavaScript
Answer: D
Which component defines the navigation areas for Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook
and Microsoft Dynamics CRM for tablets?
A. SiteMap
B. Application ribbon
C. Style Sheet (CSS)
D. Service endpoint
Answer: A
Which object is used to retrieve the root URL for an organization?
A. GetClientUrl
B. PrependOrgName
C. GetObject
D. GetQueryStringParameters
Answer: A
What is the correct term for a set of components that can be transported between different
Microsoft Dynamics CRM organizations?
A. Solution
B. User settings
C. Extensions
D. Data maps
Answer: B
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM, which feature is included as part of the application framework
model?
A. presentation
B. asynchronous business logic
C. multi-tenancy
D. web services
Answer: A
You are making a manual edit to the Account entity command bar.
Which section of the file customizations.xml for the Account entity should you update?
A. FormXml
B. SiteMap
C. RibbonDiffXml
D. EntityInfo
Answer: C
You are trying to obtain an Account record from Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You do NOT know the name of the Account record.
Which method should you use to discover the Account record?
A. RetrieveMultiple
B. Create
C. Retrieve
D. Update
Answer: A
Which three actions can be performed on entity records when you use the Open Data
Protocol (OData)?
A. Count
B. Execute
C. Create
D. Delete
E. Update
Answer: C,D,E
IBM C2010-510 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
IBM C2010-510 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : C2010-510
Exam name : IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Administration
Which statement is true regarding the Navigator Views tab in Administer Users?
A. Available views are navigator views in which the user has view access.
B. Assigned views are navigator views in which the user has view access.
C. Assigned root are navigator items in which the user has change access.
D. Assigned views are navigator views in which the user has change access.
Answer: C
Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v30r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.it
m.doc_6.2.2fp2%2Fnav_editornewview_tep.htm(what to do next)
What does the IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator have to answer questions about when
configuring an OS agent?
A. whether to auto start the agent
B. the connection to the data warehouse
C. the connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
D. the connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
Answer: C
Where should the IBM Tivoli Monitoring Event Synchronization component be installed
when installing the components for event forwarding?
A. on its own host
B. on the same host as the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. on the host of the hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
D. on the same host as the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus ObjectServer
Answer: C
Reference:http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v61r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.
ibm.itm.doc_6.3%2Finstall%2Fevent_snc_comp.htm
An IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 administrator is unable to display historical data beyond 24
hours. All workspace views are showing missing data-related errors. Which option resolves
the situation?
A. restart the browser
B. restart the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
C. install and configure the Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. install and configure the IBM Tivoli Performance Analyzer
Answer: C
What does the cinfo -i command do in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 UNIX/Linux
environment?
A. It lists configured instances.
B. It shows running processes.
C. It displays an inventory of installed products.
D. It displays configuration prompts and configuration values.
Answer: C
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFXA_6.3.0/com.ibm.itm.doc_6.3/cmdref/cinfo.ht
m%23cinfo
Which component can be configured to have a Hot Standby?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
B. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (Hub)
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (Remote)
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Automation Server
Answer: B
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFXA_6.2.0/com.ibm.itm.doc/itm_install44.htm%2
3failover_deploy(See the table)
Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS) V6.3?
A. TEPS is responsible for all graphical presentation of monitoring data.
B. TEPS collects and controls all data and alerts received from monitoring agents.
C. TEPS is responsible for tracking the online or offline status of monitoring agents.
D. TEPS is the first component installed when building the Tivoli Management Services
foundation.
Answer: A
Exam code : C2010-510
Exam name : IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Administration
Which statement is true regarding the Navigator Views tab in Administer Users?
A. Available views are navigator views in which the user has view access.
B. Assigned views are navigator views in which the user has view access.
C. Assigned root are navigator items in which the user has change access.
D. Assigned views are navigator views in which the user has change access.
Answer: C
Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v30r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.it
m.doc_6.2.2fp2%2Fnav_editornewview_tep.htm(what to do next)
What does the IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator have to answer questions about when
configuring an OS agent?
A. whether to auto start the agent
B. the connection to the data warehouse
C. the connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
D. the connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
Answer: C
Where should the IBM Tivoli Monitoring Event Synchronization component be installed
when installing the components for event forwarding?
A. on its own host
B. on the same host as the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. on the host of the hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
D. on the same host as the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus ObjectServer
Answer: C
Reference:http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v61r1/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.
ibm.itm.doc_6.3%2Finstall%2Fevent_snc_comp.htm
An IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 administrator is unable to display historical data beyond 24
hours. All workspace views are showing missing data-related errors. Which option resolves
the situation?
A. restart the browser
B. restart the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
C. install and configure the Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. install and configure the IBM Tivoli Performance Analyzer
Answer: C
What does the cinfo -i command do in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 UNIX/Linux
environment?
A. It lists configured instances.
B. It shows running processes.
C. It displays an inventory of installed products.
D. It displays configuration prompts and configuration values.
Answer: C
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFXA_6.3.0/com.ibm.itm.doc_6.3/cmdref/cinfo.ht
m%23cinfo
Which component can be configured to have a Hot Standby?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
B. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (Hub)
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (Remote)
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Automation Server
Answer: B
Reference:http://www-
01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSTFXA_6.2.0/com.ibm.itm.doc/itm_install44.htm%2
3failover_deploy(See the table)
Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS) V6.3?
A. TEPS is responsible for all graphical presentation of monitoring data.
B. TEPS collects and controls all data and alerts received from monitoring agents.
C. TEPS is responsible for tracking the online or offline status of monitoring agents.
D. TEPS is the first component installed when building the Tivoli Management Services
foundation.
Answer: A
HP2-H31 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP2-H31 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : HP2-H31
Exam name : Technical Essentials of HP Workstations
QUESTION NO: 1
Who are the leading competitors for HP Z620 workstations?
A. Samick, Asus, and Dell
B. IBM, Lexmark, and NVDIA
C. Samsung, Gold Star, and Hyundai
D. Dell,Lenovo,and Apple
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?
A. Oil and gas
B. Home office
C. Small retail
D. Education
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which option available on HP Z420 workstations enables whisper quiet acoustics even under
heavy loads?
A. Mini tower design
B. Up to 64 GB ECC memory
C. Latest technology from NVIDIA
D. Liquid cooling subsystem
Answer: D
Reference:http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2009/asetek-adds-liquid-cooling-to-hp-zworkstations.
aspx
QUESTION NO: 4
Which feature that applies to HP Z1 workstations appeals to customers in the healthcare market
segment?
A. 92 percent efficient 240 Watt power supply
B. Easyto clean 27-inch IPS professional display
C. 27-inch HP DreamColor display
D. Large 17-inch display real estate
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which feature applies to the liquid cooling option available in some HP workstations?
A. Reduces the toxicity of the cooling process
B. Replaces the air passing over the heat sink with liquid
C. Muffles the fan noise by surrounding the fan shroud with liquid
D. Replaces the heat sink with a cold plate
Answer: C
Exam code : HP2-H31
Exam name : Technical Essentials of HP Workstations
QUESTION NO: 1
Who are the leading competitors for HP Z620 workstations?
A. Samick, Asus, and Dell
B. IBM, Lexmark, and NVDIA
C. Samsung, Gold Star, and Hyundai
D. Dell,Lenovo,and Apple
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?
A. Oil and gas
B. Home office
C. Small retail
D. Education
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which option available on HP Z420 workstations enables whisper quiet acoustics even under
heavy loads?
A. Mini tower design
B. Up to 64 GB ECC memory
C. Latest technology from NVIDIA
D. Liquid cooling subsystem
Answer: D
Reference:http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2009/asetek-adds-liquid-cooling-to-hp-zworkstations.
aspx
QUESTION NO: 4
Which feature that applies to HP Z1 workstations appeals to customers in the healthcare market
segment?
A. 92 percent efficient 240 Watt power supply
B. Easyto clean 27-inch IPS professional display
C. 27-inch HP DreamColor display
D. Large 17-inch display real estate
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which feature applies to the liquid cooling option available in some HP workstations?
A. Reduces the toxicity of the cooling process
B. Replaces the air passing over the heat sink with liquid
C. Muffles the fan noise by surrounding the fan shroud with liquid
D. Replaces the heat sink with a cold plate
Answer: C
HP HP2-K37 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP HP2-K37 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam Code : HP2-K37
Exam Name : Selling HP Storage Solutions and Services
QUESTION NO: 1
As a result of continued business growth, a small-business customer is becoming more reliant on
their email system. They have asked you for a recommendation regarding a storage system they
can use to store their Microsoft Exchange Server files.
Which additional technologies should you discuss with this customer?
A. Fibre Channel and iSCSI
B. data protection, backup, and recovery
C. multi-tiered storage, fabric directors, and federated deduplication
D. storage replication to a remote site and redundancy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer is planning to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 with 5,000 mailboxes. They
need a storage solution that is capable of a large amount of growth, and that supports
unpredictable workloads and backup integration of the servers running Exchange Server 2013.
Which storage solution should the customer deploy?
A. HP3PARStoreServ
B. HP StoreOnce
C. HP StoreVirtual
D. HP StoreEasy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
How can HP ServiceOne Partners work with HP to enhance the value that is delivered to
customers?
A. by collaborating with more independent software vendors than the competition for broad,
holistic support
B. by combining proven expertise with a worldwide channel partner network to maximize ROI by
HP HP2-K37 Exam
stocking millions of components at locations worldwide for immediate delivery
C. by offering migrations of network management solutions to proven, stable software
environments
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A mid-sized customer wants to expand their existing, virtualized server environment by using their
internal and direct-attached disks for shared storage purposes.
Which HP storage product should this customer consider?
A. HPStoreEasyl000
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ
C. HP StoreOnce Virtual Storage Appliance
D. HP StoreVirtual Virtual Storage Appliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Exam Code : HP2-K37
Exam Name : Selling HP Storage Solutions and Services
QUESTION NO: 1
As a result of continued business growth, a small-business customer is becoming more reliant on
their email system. They have asked you for a recommendation regarding a storage system they
can use to store their Microsoft Exchange Server files.
Which additional technologies should you discuss with this customer?
A. Fibre Channel and iSCSI
B. data protection, backup, and recovery
C. multi-tiered storage, fabric directors, and federated deduplication
D. storage replication to a remote site and redundancy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer is planning to deploy Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 with 5,000 mailboxes. They
need a storage solution that is capable of a large amount of growth, and that supports
unpredictable workloads and backup integration of the servers running Exchange Server 2013.
Which storage solution should the customer deploy?
A. HP3PARStoreServ
B. HP StoreOnce
C. HP StoreVirtual
D. HP StoreEasy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
How can HP ServiceOne Partners work with HP to enhance the value that is delivered to
customers?
A. by collaborating with more independent software vendors than the competition for broad,
holistic support
B. by combining proven expertise with a worldwide channel partner network to maximize ROI by
HP HP2-K37 Exam
stocking millions of components at locations worldwide for immediate delivery
C. by offering migrations of network management solutions to proven, stable software
environments
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A mid-sized customer wants to expand their existing, virtualized server environment by using their
internal and direct-attached disks for shared storage purposes.
Which HP storage product should this customer consider?
A. HPStoreEasyl000
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ
C. HP StoreOnce Virtual Storage Appliance
D. HP StoreVirtual Virtual Storage Appliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
HP HP2-K38 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP HP2-K38 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam Code : HP2-K38
Exam Name : Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions and Services
QUESTION NO: 1
Which customer scenarios can the HP Storage Data Migration Service support? (Select two.)
A. The customer wants to enable mirroring capabilities.
B. The customer wants to consolidate their environment,
C. The customer wants to implement a tiered storage strategy.
D. The customer wants to redistribute data within the array.
E. The customer wants to move magazines within the array.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has expressed objections to moving to a new HP 3PAR StoreServ architecture
because of the migration complexities involved.
Which statement should you make to position Peer Motion as a solution for this customer?
A. It can complete controller node firmware updates with zero downtime.
B. It is a customer-implementable, non-disruptive data migration tool,
C. It performs a bit-by-bit copy for data archives by using data deduplication.
D. It enables customers to migrate live virtual machines with no downtime.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer asks you to explain what makes HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Provisioning unique.
Which two statements should you include in your response? (Select two.)
A. The decision to go thin can be made during original disk layout or later without compromising
the time invested.
B. The HP thin technology speeds up and simplifies data migration to other non-HP storage
appliances.
C. Disk space savings and efficient use of capacity yields a higher ROI for the life of the array.
D. Replicated data eliminates the need to write any zeros that were removed from the primary
HP HP2-K38 Exam
data source.
E. Administrators are not forced to configure the drives specifically to avoid drawDacks in
performance.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4 HOTSPOT
Match the customer requirement with the HP ServiceOne storage delivery option that supports it.
Answer:
Explanation: A customer is running out of capacity and needs help understanding how the current
storage assets are being utilized –hp Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
A customer want to architect a virtualization strategy–HP 3PAR StoreServ VMware Integration
HP HP2-K38 Exam
Service
A customer need help with system configuration parameter that are potentially affecting the
supportability of an HP 3PAR 7000 –HP Storage Imapct Analysis Service
QUESTION NO: 5
A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does
not support global deduplication.
What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through
a wide choice of RAID levels.
B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless
data movement across the enterprise.
C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global
deduplicated data pool.
D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exam Code : HP2-K38
Exam Name : Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions and Services
QUESTION NO: 1
Which customer scenarios can the HP Storage Data Migration Service support? (Select two.)
A. The customer wants to enable mirroring capabilities.
B. The customer wants to consolidate their environment,
C. The customer wants to implement a tiered storage strategy.
D. The customer wants to redistribute data within the array.
E. The customer wants to move magazines within the array.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has expressed objections to moving to a new HP 3PAR StoreServ architecture
because of the migration complexities involved.
Which statement should you make to position Peer Motion as a solution for this customer?
A. It can complete controller node firmware updates with zero downtime.
B. It is a customer-implementable, non-disruptive data migration tool,
C. It performs a bit-by-bit copy for data archives by using data deduplication.
D. It enables customers to migrate live virtual machines with no downtime.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer asks you to explain what makes HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Provisioning unique.
Which two statements should you include in your response? (Select two.)
A. The decision to go thin can be made during original disk layout or later without compromising
the time invested.
B. The HP thin technology speeds up and simplifies data migration to other non-HP storage
appliances.
C. Disk space savings and efficient use of capacity yields a higher ROI for the life of the array.
D. Replicated data eliminates the need to write any zeros that were removed from the primary
HP HP2-K38 Exam
data source.
E. Administrators are not forced to configure the drives specifically to avoid drawDacks in
performance.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4 HOTSPOT
Match the customer requirement with the HP ServiceOne storage delivery option that supports it.
Answer:
Explanation: A customer is running out of capacity and needs help understanding how the current
storage assets are being utilized –hp Storage Efficiency Analysis Service
A customer want to architect a virtualization strategy–HP 3PAR StoreServ VMware Integration
HP HP2-K38 Exam
Service
A customer need help with system configuration parameter that are potentially affecting the
supportability of an HP 3PAR 7000 –HP Storage Imapct Analysis Service
QUESTION NO: 5
A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does
not support global deduplication.
What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through
a wide choice of RAID levels.
B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless
data movement across the enterprise.
C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global
deduplicated data pool.
D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
Answer: A
Explanation:
HP2-B113 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP2-B113 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : HP2-B113
Exam name : Selling HP Designjet Large Format Printing
QUESTION NO: 1
How many black inks are used by the HP Designjet Z2100 printer on matte media?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Reference:http://www.shopping.hp.com/shopping/pdf/q6675d.pdf(third bullet)
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer with a medium workgroup requires a printer with two rolls available and fast first page
out and printing speeds. The customer has no need for scanning. Which printer best suits their
needs?
A. T920ps ePrinter
B. T1300ps ePrinter
C. T1500 ePrinter
D. T2500 eMFP
Answer: B
Reference:http://www.topazeng.com/HP-Designjet-T300-PS.html
QUESTION NO: 3
How many black inks are used by the HP Designjet Z2100 on glossy media?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
The 300ml Matte Black ink cartridge is a selling point for which printer?
A. T120 ePrinter
B. T520 ePrinter
C. T790ps ePrinter
D. T2500 eMFP
Answer: C
Exam code : HP2-B113
Exam name : Selling HP Designjet Large Format Printing
QUESTION NO: 1
How many black inks are used by the HP Designjet Z2100 printer on matte media?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Reference:http://www.shopping.hp.com/shopping/pdf/q6675d.pdf(third bullet)
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer with a medium workgroup requires a printer with two rolls available and fast first page
out and printing speeds. The customer has no need for scanning. Which printer best suits their
needs?
A. T920ps ePrinter
B. T1300ps ePrinter
C. T1500 ePrinter
D. T2500 eMFP
Answer: B
Reference:http://www.topazeng.com/HP-Designjet-T300-PS.html
QUESTION NO: 3
How many black inks are used by the HP Designjet Z2100 on glossy media?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
The 300ml Matte Black ink cartridge is a selling point for which printer?
A. T120 ePrinter
B. T520 ePrinter
C. T790ps ePrinter
D. T2500 eMFP
Answer: C
HP2-N46 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
HP2-N46 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : HP2-N46
Exam name : Selling HP Automation and Cloud Management
UESTION NO: 1
Which Task Automation discovery questions should you ask an IT executive in order to uncover a
Database and Middleware Management pain point? (Select two.)
A. What challenges do you have in maintaining the patching and upgrading of your database and
middleware estate?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate database fault, availability, performance, and configuration
management?
C. Do you have challenges securing the environments that host your database systems?
D. How do you guarantee that your database-related service desk tickets are prioritized?
E. Are you heavily reliant on senior Database administrators and proprietary scripting
mechanisms?
Answer: A,E
Reference:http://www8.hp.com/us/en/softwaresolutions/
software.html?compURI=1175651#.U8V1Ro2SxUM(first para)
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has purchased Server Automation Ultimate Edition and also uses HP Operations
Manager.
What is a natural up-sell for this customer?
A. HP Operations Orchestration
B. HP Quality Center
C. HP Performance Center
D. HP Vertica
Answer: D
Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA4-6406ENW.pdf(page 7, second last
para)
QUESTION NO: 3
Which customer profile is the best target for HP Software Task Automation solutions? (Select
three.)
A. customers who want to provide traceability from performance requirements to defects
B. customers looking to pinpoint the root causes of application issues
C. customers struggling to patch their Oracle database estate on a regular basis
D. customers with 2.000+ Windows/Linux servers
E. customers with high database-to-administrator ratios
F. customers with low server-to-administrator ratios
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
Database and Middleware Automation solution? (Select two.)
A. error-prone and resource-intensive patching of the Oracle database estate
B. no visibility from the database layer down to the spindle layer
C. no system in place to capture time value of data, coupled with immediate rich analytics insight
D. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
E. senior database administrators who are highly reliant on scripting mechanisms
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which HP Server Automation Premium value best resonates with the persona involved in Task
Automation?
A. comprehensive and continuous compliance auditing and remediation
B. integration of server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to
troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
C. prevention of issues by detecting bottlenecks and obtaining an accurate picture of end-to-end
system performance
D. virtualization of production network conditions to accurately emulate and test application
performance
Answer: A
Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6486ENW.pdf(page 1, see
figure 1)
Exam code : HP2-N46
Exam name : Selling HP Automation and Cloud Management
UESTION NO: 1
Which Task Automation discovery questions should you ask an IT executive in order to uncover a
Database and Middleware Management pain point? (Select two.)
A. What challenges do you have in maintaining the patching and upgrading of your database and
middleware estate?
B. Do you have the ability to integrate database fault, availability, performance, and configuration
management?
C. Do you have challenges securing the environments that host your database systems?
D. How do you guarantee that your database-related service desk tickets are prioritized?
E. Are you heavily reliant on senior Database administrators and proprietary scripting
mechanisms?
Answer: A,E
Reference:http://www8.hp.com/us/en/softwaresolutions/
software.html?compURI=1175651#.U8V1Ro2SxUM(first para)
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has purchased Server Automation Ultimate Edition and also uses HP Operations
Manager.
What is a natural up-sell for this customer?
A. HP Operations Orchestration
B. HP Quality Center
C. HP Performance Center
D. HP Vertica
Answer: D
Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA4-6406ENW.pdf(page 7, second last
para)
QUESTION NO: 3
Which customer profile is the best target for HP Software Task Automation solutions? (Select
three.)
A. customers who want to provide traceability from performance requirements to defects
B. customers looking to pinpoint the root causes of application issues
C. customers struggling to patch their Oracle database estate on a regular basis
D. customers with 2.000+ Windows/Linux servers
E. customers with high database-to-administrator ratios
F. customers with low server-to-administrator ratios
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Which specific challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
Database and Middleware Automation solution? (Select two.)
A. error-prone and resource-intensive patching of the Oracle database estate
B. no visibility from the database layer down to the spindle layer
C. no system in place to capture time value of data, coupled with immediate rich analytics insight
D. unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
E. senior database administrators who are highly reliant on scripting mechanisms
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which HP Server Automation Premium value best resonates with the persona involved in Task
Automation?
A. comprehensive and continuous compliance auditing and remediation
B. integration of server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to
troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
C. prevention of issues by detecting bottlenecks and obtaining an accurate picture of end-to-end
system performance
D. virtualization of production network conditions to accurately emulate and test application
performance
Answer: A
Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6486ENW.pdf(page 1, see
figure 1)
Symantec 250-252 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Symantec 250-252 Certification Exam Material - Free Download and Guaranteed Pass
Exam code : 250-252
Exam name : Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix
QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company's storage devices. The excess
amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic
relocation of data so that data expires based on age.
How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of
file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of
layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or
concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation
and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage Foundation
6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license
key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS)
with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File
System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi-pathing of
Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
Correct Answer: AD
Exam code : 250-252
Exam name : Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix
QUESTION 1
Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which two types of virtual storage provide data redundancy? (Select two.)
A. concatenate
B. RAID-5
C. stripe
D. mirror
E. RAID-0
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
What are two benefits of virtual storage using Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX? (Select two.)
A. improved deduplication for data backup
B. ability to resize storage across physical devices
C. improved disaster recovery by mirroring between arrays
D. enhanced file sharing
E. increased virtual memory
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
A system administrator has a large amount of inactive data on the company's storage devices. The excess
amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. The administrator needs to set up automatic
relocation of data so that data expires based on age.
How can the administrator set the threshold for automatic relocation of data?
A. use SmartMove
B. use SmartTier
C. use Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS)
D. use Intelligent Storage Provisioning (ISP)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which benefit is provided when Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) uses the SmartMove feature?
A. optimized Data Deduplication process
B. optimized SmartTier storage allocation process
C. optimized mirror synchronization process
D. optimized File Replication process
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two benefits of using Storage Checkpoints within Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX instead of
file system snapshots? (Select two.)
A. transient
B. read-only
C. uses free space from parent file system
D. persistent
E. uses separate volume
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the disk access name for the device displayed in the vxdisk list output?
A. mydg01
B. c2t0d0
C. mydg
D. c1t0d0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. optimized SmartMove
C. optimized replication of volume data
D. optimized file compression
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two benefits of using the FileSnap feature? (Select two.)
A. Instant snapshot creation of the same file
B. Instant snapshot creation of the same volume
C. Instant snapshot creation of the same file system
D. Instant snapshot creation of the same disk
E. Instant snapshot creation of the same virtual machine boot image
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the layout of the volume described in the vxprint output provided in the exhibit?
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A volume that contains strictly two data plexes and has four subdisks in each plex can have which two types of
layouts? (Select two.)
A. mirror-concat
B. mirror-stripe
C. stripe-mirror
D. concat-mirror
E. stripe with parity
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or
concatenation?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-0+1
D. RAID-1+0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
What are two advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Select two.)
A. provides hot-relocation
B. provides load balancing
C. improves performance
D. provides data redundancy
E. improves reliability
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Where do the private and public regions of Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS) formatted disks reside?
A. on separate disk slices
B. on a single disk slice
C. on reserved slices
D. on a boot slice
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two items are checked on existing Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX systems by the Installation
and Upgrade service from Symantec Operations Readiness Tools (SORT)? (Select two.)
A. existing Symantec packages and patches
B. disk group version
C. file system free space
D. volume manager disk group free space
E. disk drive information
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
What is the minimum Storage Foundation release supported to upgrade directly to Veritas Storage Foundation
6.0 for UNIX?
A. 5.0
B. 5.0MP1
C. 5.0MP3
D. 5.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
How many days can a customer run Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX without entering a valid license
key during installation without receiving warning messages?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which two operations can be performed with a Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) Management Server (MS)
with all add-ons installed? (Select two.)
A. manage host deployment across the enterprise
B. discover the secure Oracle databases running on the managed host
C. manage user privileges in VEA on the managed host
D. discover Solaris Zones and Solaris LDOMs running on a managed host
E. manage Business Entities
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding the reporting features in Symantec Mail Security 8300? (Select two.)
A. reporting statistics data for email and IM are tracked by default
B. centralized reporting across more than one Scanner requires a dedicated reporting appliance
C. reports can be scheduled on a daily or weekly basis
D. reports can be saved to a favorites list for easy access
E. report data retention is managed on the same schedule and frequency as log retention
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21
Which command is used to manually configure the Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) product?
A. vxconfigd
B. vxinstall
C. vxdiskadm
D. vxdctl enable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which display command consolidates information from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) and Veritas File
System (VxFS)?
A. vxprint
B. vxadm
C. vxsfadm
D. vxlist
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which two Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX commands are used to prevent and allow multi-pathing of
Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) devices? (Select two.)
A. vxdiskadm
B. vxddladm
C. fsvoladm
D. vxdmpadm
E. vxsfadm
Correct Answer: AD
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