000-004 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration
000-103 AIX 6.1 Basic Operations
000-376 IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, Solution Design
000-104 AIX 6.1 Administration
contact directly to chanakya at
itcertification39@gmail.com
itchanakya@hotmail.com or
itchanakya@ymail.com
Thursday, May 27, 2010
Friday, February 5, 2010
ST0-066 Exam Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS) Braindumps
1. Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD
2. What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D
3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B
4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B
5. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C
6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB
7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B
8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A
9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C
10. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE
11. Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE
12. What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C
13. After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD
2. What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D
3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B
4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B
5. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C
6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB
7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B
8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A
9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C
10. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE
11. Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE
12. What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C
13. After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE
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itchanakya@hotmail.com
itchanakya@ymail.com
itcertification39@gmail.com
ST0-058 Exam Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS) Braindumps
1. Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD
2. What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D
3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B
4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B
5. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C
6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB
7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B
8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A
9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C
10. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE
11. Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE
12. What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C
13. After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE
14. An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC
15. Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9? (Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC
16. When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD
2. What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D
3. Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B
4. Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B
5. Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C
6. Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB
7. Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B
8. Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A
9. Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C
10. Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE
11. Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE
12. What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C
13. After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE
14. An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC
15. Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9? (Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC
16. When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE
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itchanakya@ymail.com
itcertification39@gmail.com
ST0-052 Exam Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS) Braindumps
1. Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B
2. Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers (RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C
3. Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A
4. Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC
5. Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D
6. Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option (CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC
7. You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A
8. What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC
9. Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE
10. What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE
11. What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD
12. How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B
13. Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D
14. What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD
15. What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD
16. What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A
17. Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B
18. Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD
19. When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A
20. What are two characteristics of the default media set named "Keep Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD
21. If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B
2. Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers (RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C
3. Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows 2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A
4. Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC
5. Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D
6. Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option (CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC
7. You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A
8. What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC
9. Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE
10. What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE
11. What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD
12. How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B
13. Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D
14. What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD
15. What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD
16. What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A
17. Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B
18. Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD
19. When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A
20. What are two characteristics of the default media set named "Keep Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD
21. If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Contact directly
itchanakya@hotmail.com
itchanakya@ymail.com
itcertification39@gmail.com
200-500 Exam Zend PHP 5 Certification Braindumps
1. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server's php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server's php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server's php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
3. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match('/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/', '21st March
2006', $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array('a', 'b');
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array('a', 'b', 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, 'a', 'b')
C. array(array(1, 2), 'a', 'b')
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1 2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start--, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1 2 $text = <<
3 The big bang bonged under the bung.
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
13.Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in
PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1 2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it
does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp('hello my dear!', 'Hello my DEAR!');
The function call returns "0". What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
18. What is the output of the following script?
1 2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of 'a'
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
19. REST is a(n) ...
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ' monkeys sit on ', 011, ' trees.';
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
21. When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function
should be used for the best possible result?
A. levenshtein()
B. metaphone()
C. similar_text()
D. soundex()
Answer: B
22. Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);
A. Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B. Error: Typehints cannot be references
C. Result is NULL
D. Result is object of type stdClass
E. Result is 42
Answer: E
23. What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?
A. 255 Bytes
B. 255 Characters
C. 512 Bytes
D. 512 Characters
E. No Limit
Answer: B
24. What is the output of the following code?
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server's php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server's php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server's php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
3. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match('/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/', '21st March
2006', $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array('a', 'b');
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array('a', 'b', 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, 'a', 'b')
C. array(array(1, 2), 'a', 'b')
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1 2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start--, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1 2 $text = <<
3 The big bang bonged under the bung.
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
13.Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in
PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1 2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it
does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp('hello my dear!', 'Hello my DEAR!');
The function call returns "0". What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
18. What is the output of the following script?
1 2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of 'a'
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
19. REST is a(n) ...
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0x33, ' monkeys sit on ', 011, ' trees.';
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0x33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
21. When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function
should be used for the best possible result?
A. levenshtein()
B. metaphone()
C. similar_text()
D. soundex()
Answer: B
22. Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);
A. Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B. Error: Typehints cannot be references
C. Result is NULL
D. Result is object of type stdClass
E. Result is 42
Answer: E
23. What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?
A. 255 Bytes
B. 255 Characters
C. 512 Bytes
D. 512 Characters
E. No Limit
Answer: B
24. What is the output of the following code?
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {Contact directly to chanakya at itcertification39@gmail.com/itchanakya@hotmail.com/itchanakya@ymail.com
Regards
Chanakya
Thursday, February 4, 2010
000-372 latest Exam Braindumps
000-372 Exam IBM WebSphere Business Modeler Advanced V6.2, Business Analysis and Design
1. Refer to the Exhibit.
There are 4 tasks that have been modeled for a process by the Information Technology department. The
business department needs to review and understand the models.
Since the business department is not as technical as the IT department, what set of task names will provide
better communication of the purposes of the tasks between the two departments?
A. Prepare Conformance Data, Perform Conformance Service, Prepare Exception Information, Update
Information
B. Prepare Conform Data, Invoke Conform Service, Unset Exception Flag, Set Data Flag
C. Prepare Conform Data, Activate Conform Service, Unset Exception Data, Set Data Flag
D. Set Conform Data Object, Execute Conform Service Object, Exception Flag Check, Set Data Object
Answer: A
2. Refer to the Exhibit.
Based on the simulation result, what can be inferred about the process cost?
A. Case 1 is the main contributor to the overall cost of the process.
B. Case 1 and 2 are the least contributors to the average cost of the process
C. The lowest average cost is incurred by a process case that occurs very rarely.
D. The maximum average cost is incurred by a process case that occurs most often.
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is true of Business Process Management (BPM)? BPM:
A. views business process improvement as a series of unconnected activities
B. attempts to address the fundamental flaws of business processes by making revolutionary changes to
those processes
C. is a discipline that relies mainly on software capabilities to accelerate business process improvement
and to facilitate business innovation
D. is a discipline that combines software capabilities and business expertise to accelerate business process
improvement and to facilitate business innovation
Answer: D
4. Which set of activities does IBM WebSphere Business Modeler support in the SOA lifecycle?
A. Development, assembling and testing of an integration solution
B. Direct deployment of models and policies to realize business intent
C. Gathering business requirements, designing, simulating, and optimizing desired business processes
D. Tracking of real-time and historical process performance times through monitoring Key Performance
Indicators (KPIs)
Answer: C
5. Select the options that are true regarding IBM WebSphere Business Modeler.
IBM WebSphere Business Modeler:
A. creates the enterprise information model.
B. is a tool to model and analyze business processes.
C. is a tool to synchronize application artifacts with process artifacts.
D. helps implement the chosen what-if model by generating BPEL or other artifacts.
E. supports business process methodologies that use comparative analyses between two states of models.
Answer: BDE
Contact directly itchanakya@hotmail.com /itchanakya@ymail.com/itcertification39@gmail.com
1. Refer to the Exhibit.
There are 4 tasks that have been modeled for a process by the Information Technology department. The
business department needs to review and understand the models.
Since the business department is not as technical as the IT department, what set of task names will provide
better communication of the purposes of the tasks between the two departments?
A. Prepare Conformance Data, Perform Conformance Service, Prepare Exception Information, Update
Information
B. Prepare Conform Data, Invoke Conform Service, Unset Exception Flag, Set Data Flag
C. Prepare Conform Data, Activate Conform Service, Unset Exception Data, Set Data Flag
D. Set Conform Data Object, Execute Conform Service Object, Exception Flag Check, Set Data Object
Answer: A
2. Refer to the Exhibit.
Based on the simulation result, what can be inferred about the process cost?
A. Case 1 is the main contributor to the overall cost of the process.
B. Case 1 and 2 are the least contributors to the average cost of the process
C. The lowest average cost is incurred by a process case that occurs very rarely.
D. The maximum average cost is incurred by a process case that occurs most often.
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is true of Business Process Management (BPM)? BPM:
A. views business process improvement as a series of unconnected activities
B. attempts to address the fundamental flaws of business processes by making revolutionary changes to
those processes
C. is a discipline that relies mainly on software capabilities to accelerate business process improvement
and to facilitate business innovation
D. is a discipline that combines software capabilities and business expertise to accelerate business process
improvement and to facilitate business innovation
Answer: D
4. Which set of activities does IBM WebSphere Business Modeler support in the SOA lifecycle?
A. Development, assembling and testing of an integration solution
B. Direct deployment of models and policies to realize business intent
C. Gathering business requirements, designing, simulating, and optimizing desired business processes
D. Tracking of real-time and historical process performance times through monitoring Key Performance
Indicators (KPIs)
Answer: C
5. Select the options that are true regarding IBM WebSphere Business Modeler.
IBM WebSphere Business Modeler:
A. creates the enterprise information model.
B. is a tool to model and analyze business processes.
C. is a tool to synchronize application artifacts with process artifacts.
D. helps implement the chosen what-if model by generating BPEL or other artifacts.
E. supports business process methodologies that use comparative analyses between two states of models.
Answer: BDE
Contact directly itchanakya@hotmail.com /itchanakya@ymail.com/itcertification39@gmail.com
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